FAQ = Frequently Asked Questions
Here’s a simple Q & A (Question and Answer) regarding this.
If All are going to be Saved eventually, then we don’t need Jesus.
Incorrect sir, we need Lord Jesus Christ for All the World to be Saved (1 John 4:14) after He eventually Removes All Sin of the World (singular, John 1:29) as Prophetically Declared where His Ransom for “All” the World (1 John 2:2) will become True or a Testimony (meaning, ‘come to pass’) eventually in its own appointed Divine-Kairois-Times (plural) as it is Written in 1 Timothy 2:6 as well.
Jesus specifically said “NOT EVERYONE… shall enter the kingdom of God” (Matt 7:21). How is Jesus a universalist if “NOT EVERYONE” makes it in?
Christ Himself is the Blessed Universalist (John 12:32, John 6:37) which refers to “All” too (John 3:35). More Scriptural Details:
That’s Judgment sir to the age when He says ‘not everyone in Matthew 7:20 – 23’.
You are ignoring the Scripture that His Judgment will be Triumphed Over or Ended by His Mercy even if it’s the Eternal Hell sentence (James 2:13) and this Mercy is Promised to “All” eventually (Romans 11:32).
Matthew 5:19 —> all make it eventually where “all” here refers to both the ‘one obeying His Law & Prophets’ & the ‘one disobeying His Law & Prophets too’ as both are mentioned in this verse to be ‘in the kingdom of the heavens eventually’ (same phrase used for both cases means that same meaning for both except that the former is ‘greater’ while the latter is ‘least’ accordingly).
The ‘not everyone part’ is [afterlife] Judgment but it ends eventually due to His Mercy (James 2:13).
John 12:32 —-> “all men” eventually.
Judgment without Mercy is mentioned in James 2:13 to the one not having shown mercy meaning that their punishment must be eternal.
James 2:13 mentions Judgment without mercy but thereafter also mentions that “Mercy Triumphs over (or ENDS) this Judgment without Mercy” as it is Written in this same Verse and you are not quoting it sir.
If James 2:13 only mentioned ‘Judgment without Mercy’, then you are right. It does NOT and rather explicitly mentions that Mercy Triumphs over and Ends this Judgment without Mercy (as this is the ‘most extreme and only Judgment mentioned in this verse’, [context] which ends too, as it is Triumphed over as it is Written, Inevitable).
Paul only writes that the Mercy “might” be shown to “All” and not that it will be shown to All eventually in Romans 11:32.
The Word “might” or “may” or “maybe” does NOT exist in the Original Greek Scripture in Romans 11:32 and thus your argument based on a non-existing word in Scripture is thus invalid and non-existent too.
The “might” is the same meaning as ‘Scripture might be Fulfilled’ (e. g. Matthew 26:56, KJV) where it’s added for smoothness in reading and the fact that ‘it hasn’t fully come to pass but will eventually’.
Doubts? (Please note the word END in Isaiah 46:10; other related verses proving that God’s Will will eventually be Done in the END, Unchangeable, Immutable, Irrefutable proving that Creation’s will is ‘only a vanity, temporary’ (Romans 8:20, Ecclesiastes 1:2, KJV) meaning that no creation’s will or disobedience can be eternal being vanity): Isaiah 14:24, Isaiah 55:11.
Yes, being the ‘children of God eventually’ past the temporal state of ‘corruption in sin’ or ‘vanity’ (Romans 8:20) which affects “ALL creation” (Romans 8:22) —-> is promised to ‘All Creation’ (yep, please note the phrase ‘all or whole creation’ in Romans 8:22 to realize this) —> this same ‘all creation’ (perfect context: consecutive verses) is said to be eventually ‘set free’ (from sin & its effects, meaning that all creation will be ‘sinless’ eventually, implied) —> as mentioned to be in the “glorious liberty of the children of God” eventually too (Romans 8:21, KJV) in Romans 8:20 – 21 as it is WRITTEN. Can you understand it, sir?
There are no “maybe’s” in Christ.
It’s not all men but believers only.
Please consider 1 Timothy 4:10 where both the phrase “all men” and “those who believe” are distinguished clearly (where the latter is a ‘special’ subset of the former) but God is said to be the “Saviour of All men” (both, in 1 Timothy 4:10) so clearly as the meaning for this is that God “will have all men to be SAVED” eventually (1 Timothy 2:4, KJV) as it is Written and yes, Lord Jesus Christ knows NO Failure.
Regarding the meaning of “all men”
And the Fact that it is Written literally that God “Will have All men to be Saved” (1 Timothy 2:4, KJV),
The All in Romans 11:32 refers to ‘all who will believe in Him only’.
His Great Mercy is eventually toward “All” (Romans 11:32) and His Perfect Ransom is for “All” too (1 Timothy 2:6) causing the Reconciliation of All Created things eventually (please note the phrase “All things Created” in Colossians 1:16 which is clearly mentioned to be ‘Reconciled back to Him eventually’ four consecutive verses later, perfect context again in Colossians 1:20 & this Mystery or Secret was not revealed to the sons of men in past ages as well, implied in Colossians 1:26 together with ‘other mysteries or secret such as the one mentioned in Colossians 1:27 as well’ together with this).
Thus it makes sense that He Truly ‘Loses None’ in the END Fulfilling the Will of God in the LAST DAY (John 6:39, Colossians 1:20) —> yes, He eventually LOSES NONE of the ‘All things’ by ‘Restoring All things eventually’ as Prophesied from the Age as mentioned in Acts 3:21 (or toward All Created things eventually, John 3:35, John 1:3, Colossians 1:16) —> making ‘All things New’ (Revelation 21:5) and ‘Beautiful too eventually’ (Ecclesiastes 3:11) —-> where after all these things are fulfilled (Hebrews 2:8 referring to Christ in regards to 1 Corinthians 15:24 – 28 as well) —> then finally & eternally, God becomes ‘All in All’ (i.e. ‘All Creation fully Perfected & Filled with Him being Sinless, as mentioned in 1 Corinthians 15:28).
More details regarding this, please consider:
*All Refers to ‘All created things’ (Colossians 1:16) and their actions or will (Ecclesiastes 1:2) and ONLY God is EXCEPTED from the Scriptural Definition of ALL in these verses as mentioned in 1 Corinthians 15:27. Can you see it regarding the Scriptural definition and meaning of ALL?
I repeat, His Great Mercy is eventually toward “All” (Romans 11:32) eventually:
All = the obedient and the disobedient (Romans 11:30 – 31) which includes the enemies of the Gospel too (Romans 11:28).
Perfect Context holds as all verses quoted here are consecutive verses proving this fact Irrefutably as it is Written in Romans 11. Can you see it?
Please consider, yes all arguments as it is WRITTEN in the Verses quoted:
Yes, even in His Hate and Hell, it is Aimed at Saving the World as discussed with verses and other details in posts below for further edification:
Only those who believe can be Saved. The phrase “whosoever believeth” in John 3:16 too agrees with this. Not everyone or “all” or the “world” will believe, right?
Don’t you know the PROPHECY that ALL in the WORLD will eventually BELIEVE in HIM as implied in 1 Timothy 3:16 where some will only believe after ‘seeing Him’ (John 20:29)?
More details with “Verses” for “each claim made”:
Truly, God doesn’t Change from being Love always (1 John 4:8).
For Deep Discussions regarding this: Please consider the Two Posts below which contains Multiple Links detailing out in depth analysis with further Verses for each claim made, even translation points where it matters:
Thank-you for writing in.
Peace to you
In Revelation 20, it says that the Devil will be tormented in the lake of Fire “FOREVER AND EVER”. You can argue that the term “forever” can be used to denote a “to an age”, but the dual phrase “forever and ever” (Aeon of aeons) is always a term used to denote “endless”. Scripture tells us that “God shall reign forever and ever”. It is impossible to make this have a termination date. Matthew 25 indicates that the wicked goats will shared in the same inheritance as the devil and his angels with “eternal punishments” while the righteous go to “eternal life”. If eternal life is endless, then hermeneutical so is “eternal punishment” found in the same verse.
The writer of Hebrews said that for some “it is IMPOSSIBLE to be bring them back to repentance” (Hebrews 6). If they eventually get saved then he could not use the term “impossible”.
The writer of Hebrews also says that for some of the wicked “there no longer remains a sacrifice for sins” (Hebrews 10). How can anyone ever get saved in this life or the ages to come when the “NO LONGER remains a sacrifice for sins”?
Firstly, the Mistranslation you quote is not true because the punishment of Satan is actually mentioned to the ages (subset, a long but limited time period only) out of the Ages (Larger set) in Revelation 20:10, as seen only with a literal translation. It’s not forever and ever as popularly erred in translation.
Also, the age-during life as mentioned in Matthew 25:46 is defined by Scripture NOT to mean endless life (where is the verse which says this?) but rather surprising to most, it ‘refers to knowing the True God & Jesus Christ Whom He has sent’ as the ONLY Scriptural definition of ‘age-during life’ is found in verse below:
“and this is the life age-during, that they may know Thee, the only True God, and Him whom Thou didst send — Jesus Christ;” (John 17:3, YLT)
Here’s a more accurate translation using the phrase age-during life in related verses below:
“who may not receive back manifold more in this time, and in the coming age, life age-during.” (Luke 18:30, YLT)
“And these shall go away to punishment age-during, but the righteous to life age-during.” (Matthew 25:46, YLT)
So, John 17:3 speaks or means that during the ‘age-during life’ experienced by the believers in the coming age (Luke 18:30, Matthew 25:46), we get to ‘know Him’. It has nothing to do with the definition of endless life or immortality as John 17:3 clearly defines it as a ‘time period of an age [etymology or lexicography or usage of the word age]’ for which the Bible Verse mentions that we (believers) get to ‘know the only True God and Jesus Christ’.
So, the argument of yours regarding ‘endless life’ when it refers to ‘age-during life’ is NOT found in Scripture but was first erred by Augustine of Hippo himself who used a human reasoning instead of a verse to define ‘eternal life’ which is clearly NOT the Biblical meaning as given in John 17:3 as well as the fact that the etymology or lexicography or usage of the word “aion” or “eon” refers to “age” only (a limited but unknown time period, usually long in duration too but with a beginning and an end).
Here are some reads regarding “aion” or “eons” or other equivalent phrases to that:
Next, Regarding Hebrews 10:26, the phrase “no longer remains a sacrifice for sins” is in the ‘context of a believer’ here which means the ‘no afterlife Judgment’ (as mentioned in John 5:24) does NOT hold for such ‘fallen-out-believers-who-cannot-repent-on-earth ’—-> and thus as the next verse continues, these will face afterlife Judgment in Fire first just like the “adversaries” (Hebrews 10:27) —> meaning even in the worst case scenario, a ‘Judgment without Mercy’ must be endured first as James 2:13 mentions but it doesn’t end there since His Mercy Triumphs and ends it thereafter as also mentioned in James 2:13 as well as in Romans 11:32.
This holds true since the ‘same punishment to the adversaries’ (where Mercy Triumphs and ends the Worst type of Judgment without Mercy first, James 2:13) —-> is to be endured “likewise” (Hebrews 10:27) by ‘such fallen out believers’ (Hebrews 10:26).
Here are those verses in Hebrews 10 for clarification.
“For if we go on sinning wilfully after receiving the knowledge of the truth, there no longer remains a sacrifice for sins,
but a terrifying expectation of judgment and THE FURY OF A FIRE WHICH WILL CONSUME THE ADVERSARIES. ” (Hebrews 10:26 – 27, NASB)
The verse in Hebrews 10:26 speaks of ‘no earthly repentance is possible’. This means that these will face the fiery Judgment of God next in the afterlife as it is so with the ‘adversaries’ (Hebrews 10:27).
After which His Mercy Triumphs later as it is Written in James 2:13 & Romans 11:32 too.
Nothing is contradicted sir. Please allow me to explain the details regarding this even with regards to God’s Reign (please bear with me as this has some fine details and needs full concentration in order to understand it accurately as it is Written, thank-you for your patience):
“then comes the end, when He hands over the kingdom to the God and Father, when He has abolished all rule and all authority and power.
For He must reign until He has put all His enemies under His feet. The last enemy that will be abolished is death.
For HE HAS PUT ALL THINGS IN SUBJECTION UNDER HIS FEET. But when He says, “All things are put in subjection,” it is evident that He is excepted who put all things in subjection to Him.
When all things are subjected to Him, then the Son Himself also will be subjected to the One who subjected all things to Him, so that God may be all in all.” (1 Corinthians 15:24 – 28, NASB)
God Will reign till His enemies are put under His Feet (1 Corinthians 15:24 – 28) which is NOT forever signified by the word “till” or “until” as it is mentioned for time-period of “His Reign (Verb)” in 1 Corinthians 15:25 and is likewise meant (His Reign to the limited time period of the “ages” over the house of Jacob in Luke 1:33 too).
The Word “End” (in 1 Corinthians 15:24) itself signifies the “End of His Reign” (as described in 1 Corinthians 15:25) where He has put “all Enemies under His Feet”. Lord Jesus Christ has Succeeded in this by then.
Thereafter, the next verses in 1 Corinthians 15:26 – 28 mention the “Subjection” (meaning Submission) of “All” to Him in the same Way He Subjects to the Father (an Analogy clearly Drawn in these verses) meaning both Subjection or Submission (of the “All created things” to Him & His Subjection to the Father) must be in “Love” after which finally and eternally, God becomes “all in all”.
Please note that in Luke 1:33, it is mentioned that His “Reign” (Verb) is to the “ages” while His “Kingdom” (Noun) which is achieved during the Reign & Remains after the Reign to the Ages Ends —> is said to have “no end”.
That is, His “Kingdom” inclusive of “All” things being Subject to Him in Love (1 Corinthians 15:26 – 28) will have “no end” (Luke 1:33).
Please also note that Greek has the phrase “no end” (as mentioned in Luke 1:33) but it has NEVER been used to describe His Reign (the Verb) and NOR the duration of an afterlife judgment sentence meaning that these are to the ‘age or ages’ respectively according to the case referred to in Holy Scripture.
In Fact His afterlife Judgment for such ‘servants’ (‘believers’) as contrasted against ‘unbelievers’ (in Luke 12:46) —-> is described in Luke 12:47 – 48 based on whether this servant knew the Master’s Will and acted accordingly or not —-> where both cases of punishments are described to have an END as signified by the word UNTIL in the phrase “until you pay the last cent” (Luke 12:59) —-> this is the case which includes the ‘servant’ (or believer) who is punished together with the ‘adversaries’ as the verses in Hebrews 10:26 – 27 and Luke 12:46 – 48 agree perfectly —> yes, these punishments are NOT eternal but only till the last penny is paid (Luke 12:59) agreeing perfectly to the Mercy which Triumphs or Ends that ‘Judgment Without Mercy’ Sentence too (as mentioned in James 2:13).
The fact that these afterlife judgment or punishments are measurable as the phrases beaten with “few/many” stripes accordingly (Luke 12:47 – 48) itself means that these punishments are “finite” (limited, measurable, has an END). Please note that the Greek phrase meaning “no end” (or equivalent as found in Luke 1:33) is NOT used to describe the punishment here meaning these are NOT eternal as popularly erred against these verses as well.
In other words, if Lord Jesus Christ wanted to mean eternal punishment, He should have used a phrase equivalent to “beaten with no end” or “beaten with endless beatings” to signify it which He did NOT —-> instead of ‘beaten with many/few stripes’ in Luke 12:46 – 47 or ‘only till the last Penny is paid’ in Luke 12:59 which describes or includes the afterlife punishments for even the ‘disobedient servant or fallen believer case’ as mentioned in Hebrews 10:26 – 27 —> making the eternal punishment claim invalid & void again.
Can you see this distinction clearly to understand this Truth as it is Written to pin-point accuracy based on the actual words used?
Here’s the verse in Luke:
“and He [Lord Jesus Christ] shall Reign [Verb] over the house of Jacob to the ages; and of His Reign [Kingdom, Noun] there shall be no end.” (Luke 1:33, YLT)
Please note that the Greek Words for the “Reign (Verb)” and “Reign (Noun) = Kingdom” have the same root word in Greek but are distinct in meaning since one is the Action (Act of Reigning, Verb which has an END to the ages) while the latter is an Noun (Kingdom which is obtained by the Act of Reigning) which has “no end” (remains permanently). It’s hard to see it in English but is very distinct in the Greek as described.
So, Lord Jesus Christ doesn’t need to ‘reign-forever’ but only to the ‘ages’ to have all His Enemies being made subject to Him in Love and thereafter, His Kingdom remains with ‘no end’ (forever) Perfectly in God’s Will as God has become ‘All in All’ as it is Written (and understood clearly when Luke 1:33 is read together with 1 Corinthians 15:24 – 28 with a special focus on the ‘house of Jacob (Israel)’ to Understand this Deep Treasure of Holy Scripture).
Even so come, Lord Jesus Christ the Blessed Saviour of the World!
“Truly, You are a God who hides Himself, O God of Israel, Savior!” (Isaiah 45:15, NASB)