Literal and logical Apologetics

How to refute the “bringing into logic” and the “other verses quoted on the Mystery of Christ” as often twisted out of its “literal” meaning especially by the ECT believers?

It’s simple: The flaw in their arguments stem from the “classic” misunderstanding from the “eternal hell camp” which centers around taking the verses which they quote to mean the “bringing into” thinking (a fallacy of both logic & language).

Do allow me to demonstrate with a simple example. Consider the verse below:

“God is the Saviour of all men especially those who believe” (1 Timothy 4:10).

Based on their assumptions of interpreting Greek, you’ll find the word “especially” here to mean the “bringing into” thinking where you’ll end up concluding that it means “only” believers are saved. Even in English (as it is in Greek) such a rule is “imaginary” (invented) for God didn’t create “grammar” rules!

Based on the Truth, it means “literally” what it says, namely “God Saves all men” (Universal Set of all people) but “believers are special to Him” (a subset of all men highlighted with respect to being ‘special’).

Similarly, when the mystery of Christ refers to the “Gentiles being fellow heirs” (it’s a highlight of a subset in this ‘secret’ of God in Christ).

Also on verses where it means “those who believe are saved” (again, a subset is highlighted) with respect to the criteria of “believing” (relatively) implying the reward of “age-during life” (or life in the age to come – literally).

That’s all.

P/S:

Knowing & having studied a little logic with Mathematics, here’s a note on “if p, then q” (logic):

We have (e.g. in Ephesians 3:6)

p = Mystery of Christ
q = Gentiles are fellow heirs
Based on their understanding of “if p, then q”, their argument concludes:

“if q, then p” simply because they went on to imply that “the Gentiles being fellow heirs” is “all” there is to the “Mystery or Secret of Christ”.

However, any student of the field of “logic” will immediately be able to see the “flaw” in “their conclusion”. Why? Simply because “if p, then q” does “not” necessarily imply “if q, then p”.

In other words, when the Bible speaks “if p, then q” (logically & literally), that’s all we take without adding. Furthermore, we know for sure 100% that it cannot be “if q, then p” simply because other verses such as Ephesians 1:9 – 10 proves this. Consider, for argument’s sake:

Here, we have (e.g. in Ephesians 1:9-10)

p = Secret (Mystery) of His Will (of Christ)
q = Gather in “one” the “all things” during the dispensation of the fullness of the times

Now if “their” logic for “if q, then p” is “true”, having the “same p” (big picture) in both Colossians 1:26-27 and Ephesians 1:9-10, both the “q’s” must be “same” as well! This leads to the following “logic & language” absurdity:

Since

q = Gentiles are fellow heirs

and

q = Gather in “one” the “all things” during the dispensation of the fullness of the times

Then it must be that (both being equal to ‘q’ and stemming from the ‘same p’):

Gentiles are fellow heirs = Gather in “one” the “all things” during the dispensation of the fullness of the times

Which is clearly a “contradiction”!

I know that some of them may ‘try’ to further argue that the above is true because ‘all things’ = ‘believers only’ (both Jew & Gentile)

This is “easy” to refute. The verse below “literally” states that “all things” refers to “all that was created by Him” (rational creatures being a highlight for both reconciliation & salvation) unless of course in their assumption, “all things = believers only” (wrong! because it implies that God “only” created Christian or believing things – then who created the non-believing things? The absurdity is obvious). Here’s the Scripture which proves that “all things” are created by “God” (Christ):

“because in Him were the all things created, those in the heavens, and those upon the earth, those visible, and those invisible, whether thrones, whether lordships, whether principalities, whether authorities; all things through Him, and for Him, have been created,” (Colossians 1:16)

Remember that this “same all things” is what is mentioned to be “reconciled” by God (just a few verses down – talking about ‘literal context’ on which ‘all things’ is referred to):

“and through Him to reconcile the all things to Himself — having made peace through the blood of his cross — through Him, whether the things upon the earth, whether the things in the heavens.” (Colossians 1:20)

Finally note that when the Bible reveals the Mystery of Christ to refer to various “intermediate steps” (believers saved first; gentile, Jew etc – subset) which leads to the “all men” (a bigger subset – inclusive of ‘all Israel being saved’ being part of ‘God Saves all men’ verses – the larger subsets) and finally “ending” in the Saving of the “World” (kosmos) meaning the reconciliation as well as salvation of “all things” (the Universal Set) fulfilling the “Secret of His Will” = “Mystery of Christ” through “Perfect Completion”.

By the way, the “if’s” (they implied by the ‘mood’) is just a difference of those “already achieved” (in the cases of ‘you being reconciled’ verses) and the “not achieved yet” (the cases for which the ‘all things are going to be reconciled’). It doesn’t disprove anything unless they can show a verse which says how God Will fail to reconcile the all things.

Also, if He’s going to fail to reconcile all things, then there’s no need for Him to mention those verses at all in the first place.

Last but not least, if the all things does not include all rational creation (principalities & powers in the heavenly places as well – as in Colossians 1:16) then He might just have said to “reconcile believers to Himself” (which is not the case! – just a few verses down in Colossians 1:20 – disproving them absolutely!)

The End (literally).