Here’s the best rebuttal attempt at 1 Timothy 4:10 by the “eternal hell believing site CARM”.

“Enjoy” (pay attention to how they need to “twist” the verse out of what it literally states to conform it to their eternal hell doctrine).

Ask yourself a simple question:
“Did God mean the verse literally (as we see it) or ‘generically’ as the eternal hell believing ones put it?” Simple, right? (yes, it’s as you see it in English as it is in Greek)

Here it is:

“Is God the Savior?

“For it is for this we labor and strive, because we have fixed our hope on the living God, who is the Savior of all men, especially of believers.” (1 Tim. 4:10, NASB).

1 Tim. 4:10 is referring to God in particular and not necessarily Jesus in particular. Does the title “God” include Jesus? Of course, since Jesus is God in flesh (Col. 2:9), the Savior. God, who is a Trinity, is called Savior in Psalm 106:21; Isaiah 43:3; Luke 1:47; 1 Tim. 1:1; 2:3; Titus 1:3-4; and Titus 2:10. It is obvious that the term refers to God in the generic sense of being the Savior of all men since He brings salvation to all though it is not accepted by all. This is why it says that God (not Jesus) is the Savior of all men, especially of believers. How is it especially to believers? Simple. It is especially and specifically realized only by those who are believers.

Furthermore, only Jesus is the mediator between God and men (1 Tim. 2:5), and He mediates only between the saved and God. He does not mediate His atoning work for the unredeemed. His being Savior is generic for all but specific for the saved.

Therefore, this verse does not necessitate that all will be redeemed.”

I repeat:

Ask yourself a simple question:
“Did God mean the verse literally (as we see it) or ‘generically’ as the eternal hell believing ones put it?” Simple, right?

You should ask them to explain the similar grammar syntax and even Greek Word “malista” ( = especially in English) as it ocuurs in the verse below:

“for there are many both insubordinate, vain-talkers, and mind-deceivers especially they of the circumcision ” (Titus 1:10)

So is God speaking “Generically” or “Literally”?
For me, it’s literally.
Each one makes his own choice “literally”.

Ooppss.. Maybe they have “Generic faith” too and not a “literal faith”. That’s the “key difference”.

P/S:

(yes, it’s as you see it in English as it is in Greek)