Ever wondered why some Jews don’t believe Lord Jesus Christ as their Messiah?
Here are some points (other reasons are similar to these):
(i) Some Jews think that only the Torah or the Tanakh or the Talmud is inspired Scripture and don’t accept the New Testament Scripture as Inspired
For example, they will accuse you of —-> ‘why not accept the Book of Mormon as the latest revelation then?’
When the verse below was written, it referred ‘only’ to the New Testament Scripture (in writing or in action first, being manifested) and Old Testament Scripture only (it cannot be extended to the timeline when the Book of Mormon or others when they were written) as apostle Paul who wrote this verse only refers to these Two Writings (or Inspired Authors, e.g. the apostles) when doing so:
“All Scripture is inspired by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, for training in righteousness; so that the man of God may be adequate, equipped for every good work.” – apostle Paul (2 Timothy 3:16 – 17, NASB)
(ii) When you point to an error in their translation or interpretation of Hebrew writings, they will try to silence you with their supremacy in that language by pointing to the fact that ‘it’s their mother tongue’.
What they don’t realize is that the New Testament writings were chiefly written by Jews only too, namely the chosen apostle of Christ who knew Hebrew as well, especially Paul.
Point is ‘both’ translations or interpretations which don’t agree are done by those ‘who read and are expert in Hebrew too’. Thus our role is to ‘read both sides’ and then decide for ourselves which is right.
For example, the word “to” in front of “shall be” in Isaiah 9:6 (as it occurs in the Original Copyist Manuscripts) making the present tense translation valid in the King James Translation and the common unbelieving-Jewish objection doesn’t necessarily hold. Either way, the “meaning” is the “same”.
Further, what they don’t tell you is ‘how’ they ‘changed’ the ‘order of words’ against the ‘Original order of words’ as it appears in the Manuscript and translate it differently (in meaning) to try to ‘not’ point to the ‘Child’ as the Object in Isaiah 9:6 – 7 against what is actually written. For a more detailed discussion, please consider:
(iii) Isaiah 43 is Good to illustrate the common Jewish gaps in understanding Scripture
They believe that Isaiah 43 cannot be pointing to Lord Jesus Christ at all.
We can only understand Isaiah 43 correctly when we understand it with New Testament Scripture. Every knee will bow to Lord Jesus Christ is only revealed in New Testament Scripture (Philippians 2:9 – 11). It’s how God has decided.
For more details, please consider ‘The Beautiful Confession’:
(iv) Another common objection of the Jews is that they think that believing in Christ’s Divinity is Idolatry“I am the Lord ; that is My Name; my glory I give to no other, nor My praise to carved idols.” (Isaiah 42:8)
Fact is, it just shows how the Father and Jesus are One (John 10:30) and Equal (Philippians 2:6).
“I and the Father are One.” – Lord Jesus Christ (John 10:30, NASB)
“Who (Lord Jesus Christ), although He existed in the form of God, did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped,” (Philippians 2:6, NASB)
“If you had known Me, you would have known My Father also; from now on you know Him, and have seen Him.”
Philip said to Him, “Lord, show us the Father, and it is enough for us.”
Jesus said to him, “Have I been so long with you, and yet you have not come to know
Me, Philip? He who has seen Me has seen the Father; how can you say, ‘Show us the
Father’?” – Lord Jesus Christ (John 14:7 – 9, NASB)
(v) They look for answers in a place where God did not Reveal the Answer
For example, one of them might say ‘can you give me one verse just a single verse from Tanach that says the Messiah and God are one?’
You can’t find it there directly as YHWH didn’t want to reveal these earlier before New Testament inspired Scripture (Ephesians 3:5, Colossians 1:26).
You will never reach the Truth without accepting New Testament writings first, (please do, I implore you).
(vi) Confused regarding Who Lord Jesus Christ is
For example, a common confusion would sound like this ‘would you consider Jesus God’s first born Son and the Son of man?’ Is He a ‘Servant or a Prophet or Son of God’?
Some might quote (like in picture, May God Forgive their misunderstanding & have Mercy upon them too!):
A Simple Reply:
He is the ‘Same Person’ Who has ‘Many Titles’ as ‘He Fulfills different Roles’ according to ‘His Will’.
For a detailed discussion of some of various Titles, please consider:
(vii) The “only” Problem when reading Scripture
Some Jews claim that “only” Israel is God’s son & firstborn.
Firstly, a verse:
“Then you shall say to Pharaoh, ‘Thus says the LORD, “Israel is My son, My firstborn.” (Exodus 4:22, NASB)
What they ‘miss’ when reading that Old Testament Scripture is that there are ‘hidden deeper meanings’ intended by these ‘verses’ (and phrases) which are only a ‘shadow’ where the ‘Real Substance’ refers to ‘Christ’ as the ‘New Testament’ verses below describe ‘this general error in exegesis along those lines’:
“Therefore no one is to act as your judge in regard to food or drink or in respect to a festival or a new moon or a Sabbath day— things which are a mere shadow of what is to come; but the substance belongs to Christ. “ (Colossians 2:16 – 17, NASB)
“For the Law, since it has only a shadow of the good things to come and not the very form of things, can never, by the same sacrifices which they offer continually year by year, make perfect those who draw near.” (Hebrews 10:1, NASB)
This ‘veil’ remain upon them when ‘they read Moses’:
“But their minds were hardened; for until this very day at the reading of the old covenant the same veil remains unlifted, because it is removed in Christ. But to this day whenever Moses is read, a veil lies over their heart; but whenever a person turns to the Lord, the veil is taken away. Now the Lord is the Spirit, and where the Spirit of the Lord is, there is liberty.” (2 Corinthians 3:14 – 17, NASB)
Firstly, another two verses (to be seen together with Exodus 4:22):
“When Israel was a youth I loved him, And out of Egypt I called My son.” (Hosea 11:1, NASB)
“and there He (Lord Jesus Christ) remained until the death of Herod, so that it might be fulfilled what had been spoken by the Lord through the prophet, saying, “Out of Egypt I have called My Son.” (Matthew 2:15, BLB)
Now, here’s a ‘Biblical Explanation’ (with New Testament verses too) explaining the ‘Hidden’ meaning of God’s Firstborn Son referring to Lord Jesus Christ:
Israel is God’s son as a hidden message to Lord Jesus Christ being Firstborn (Begotten, becoming Flesh, John 1:1, 14) as the New Testament’s inspired author reveals this previously Unknown Fact as even Hosea 11:1 with Matthew 2:15 illustrates.
They will insist that it’s only Israel being referred to in these passages not understanding the deeper meaning intended which only comes to light with New Testament Scripture.
It’s a good illustration as how we differ from them.
So be it, no worries. I have nothing more to say as other points are analogous to you viewing only Old Testament writings while I understand it with the deeper meaning of New Testament inspired writings as well.
They ‘read Scripture without accepting Christ’ (which is their ‘chief error’):
“Ye search the Writings (Scripture), because ye think in them to have life age-during, and these are they that are testifying concerning Me;” – Lord Jesus Christ (John 5:39, YLT)
‘Searching the Scripture’ is a ‘noble’ attitude and it is only spoken against in verse above when it is done without accepting Christ as ‘it is written’ (context clearly differentiated in the scenarios described in each quoted verse):
“These were more noble than those in Thessalonica, in that they received the word with all readiness of mind, and searched the scriptures daily, whether those things were so.” (Acts 17:11, KJV)