As It Is Written – Man Woman Role too
Christ used the phrase “as it is written” (Matthew 4:4, 7, 10) against the Devil during The Temptation.
The quote in picture sounds funny but he does have a good point.
We have to very careful when we use the phrase “the Lord told me…” because He may ‘not’ have told us that and we may end up ‘lying’ (knowingly or unknowingly) by quoting such.
Another point here that I like a lot is the fact to ‘stick to what is written in the Word’ than ‘what people claim that the Lord told them’.
For example, some like to say that ‘what is written in the Word’ is obsolete today because it’s not applicable to the modern world.
After setting up this excuse in the heart, some claim things against a ‘written fact in the Bible’ (e.g. 1 Corinthians 14:34, 1 Corinthians 14:27 – 33, 1 Timothy 2:12 – choosing some of the most disobeyed New Testament verses as a highlight – etc.) and then ‘claim’ that ‘the Lord told them otherwise’ or that ‘the times have changed, so the rules God made are not applicable today in the modern world’ or ‘that it only applies to the Corinthian church’ & many other such arguments which are “not” found in the Bible at all.
Let us therefore decide to ‘obey’ His Word “as it is written”.
Please allow me to give a Famous example (the verse below):
“But I do not allow a woman to teach or exercise authority over a man, but to remain quiet.” (1 Timothy 2:12)
“No” authority given (by Scripture) to teach nor exercise authority certainly seems to exclude women spiritual leaders of any sort (e.g. pastors).
I ignore the ‘claim’ that it’s modern time and other man made excuses which are “not” found in the Bible.
Some ‘claim’ that it speaks only with regards to ‘husband-wife’ and not ‘man-woman’ generally deceiving those who accept such an argument. Here is the disprove of that Biblically:
(i) Definition of the word used
In Greek, if one wants to refer to ‘a wife’, the phrase “his wife” is best used & it is not found here. The word used here is the ‘general’ word meaning ‘women’ (which includes those unmarried, virgins, divorced, married, all of them).
(ii) The context of the passage
Apostle Paul is “not” speaking of ‘marriage’ (not the topic here); it is a general topic regarding ‘men & women’ & some specific “roles” in Christ.
Example, men are exhorted to pray:
“Therefore I want the men in every place to pray, lifting up holy hands, without wrath and dissension.” (1 Timothy 2:8)
Women, are told to “dress modestly” (yes, dressing is important!):
“Likewise, I want women to adorn themselves with proper clothing, modestly and discreetly, not with braided hair and gold or pearls or costly garments, but rather by means of good works, as is proper for women making a claim to godliness” (1 Timothy 2:9 – 10)
(iii) Is it women in general or wives only? (as some ‘claim’ that single woman can be in spiritual leadership):
Women in general because if verse 9 & 10 speaks of women in general, verse 11 onwards too refer in general. It is obvious.
(iv) Why such a rule is given? Isn’t it unfair to women?
Such a rule is given to test “obedience” & we can clearly distinguish those ‘speaking the truth’ by ‘preaching this Scripture as it is’ and not modifying it to please men.
The main reason as to why God gave spiritual leadership only to men is mentioned in these set of verses as Paul relates to the first man (Adam) and first woman (Eve) regarding the weight of their sin in the fall (“not” equally at fault as so commonly erred). Here is Scriptural proof:
(a) “For it was Adam who was first created, and then Eve.” (1 Timothy 2:13)
Because Adam was formed first, men get the spiritual leadership role.
(b) “And it was not Adam who was deceived, but the woman being deceived, fell into transgression.” (1 Timothy 2:14)
Adam was never deceived when he was alone. He was never deceived by Satan (the Serpent) directly. The phrase “not deceived” in the verse above debunks all ‘equally responsible’ or that ‘Adam being leader is to take all blame’ or other equivalent statements which are non-existent arguments in Scripture.
So, on account of Adam being not deceived by Satan directly (Eve gave it to Adam to eat later), Adam (Man) is endorsed the spiritual leadership role. God sees it perfectly as it is as Scripture reveals. Nowhere in Scripture any equally responsible argument is found. Each bear their own sins & one sin has more weight than the other as it is the case here.
Adam & Eve are quoted with respect to the argument above (generally as Man-Woman representatives, being the firsts of each gender) as verses here talk about that aspect and “not” as their relation as “husband-wife” (which is a subset, included in the general relationship of man-woman above).
(v) A Classic Argument Refuted
Some will still insist that it speaks only to husband & wife being unable to accept Scripture. That will be their ‘claim’ against ‘Scripture’ but here is one of the best rebuttal against it:
‘Suppose the verse above speaks of husband-wife only (not true, but for argument’s sake); Ask yourself, “If God did not permit a woman to teach or exercise spiritual authority over her husband, how can He allow it (as their claim implies) to a man generally?” The absurdity is obvious.
Arguing ‘single women’ case & all that is “not” valid because “no” such distinction is made in the verses here meaning it applies to man-woman generally. If God wished to speak a rule to the “married vs unmarried vs divorced etc.” case by case, He would have done so as the cases & Greek phrases equivalent to it are found in 1 Corinthians 7. He did “not” do so here and thus man-woman here mean “generally” only.
(vi) Is this a small matter that can be ignored?
As Paul mentions in the verse prior to it regarding that those “who preach this (him) is speaking Truth in Faith” when he mentions this rule/conduct.
“For this I was appointed a preacher and an apostle (I am telling the truth, I am not lying) as a teacher of the Gentiles in faith and truth.” (1 Timothy 2:7)
(vii) Can we take it literally? If so, what is the meaning of 1 Timothy 2:15 below which occurs together with these passages?:
“But women will be preserved through the bearing of children if they continue in faith and love and sanctity with self-restraint.” (1 Timothy 2:15)
Yes, it is literal as it is here too. The verse is not speaking of Salvation achieved through child bearing (as so commonly erred) but rather that ‘the women’ who continue in ‘faith, love, sanctified with self restraint’ will ‘be saved through child bearing’ (i.e. they won’t die when they give birth to children).
Again, it’s the “if p, then q” statement which not necessarily means “if q, then p” where
p = Women continue in ‘faith, love, sanctified with self restraint’
q = won’t die when they give birth to children (meaning of ‘saved through child bearing’, equivalent phrase)
Thus, other causes can contribute to event q not happening so we cannot claim that those women who die during child bearing are necessarily due to not obeying p.
(viii) How about Anna the prophetess, Deborah the judge, Junia of well note among the apostles, Ruth, miriam etc? These are “not” spiritual leaders of any sort but are commended for their ‘secular leadership roles’ (allowed), their spiritual gifts manifested & ‘their contributions in faith’ accordingly; Detailed explanations for these can be found here: