• A common Jewish Fallacy is to say that YHWH is God (the Father) and it never refers to Lord Jesus Christ.

Here’s a mysterious verse from the Old Testament itself which hints toward the Glorious Mystery of the Trinity, described as follows: Here’s a verse which makes difficult meaning unless Trinity is True.

“And the LORD said unto Satan, The LORD rebuke thee, O Satan; even the LORD that hath chosen Jerusalem rebuke thee: is not this a brand plucked out of the fire?” (Zechariah 3:2, KJV)

Please note that each of the Word translated as LORD in the above verse is YHWH. So, why would YHWH invoke His Own Name unless one of it refers to the Father while the other the Son?  Deep thoughts.

P/S: Hebrew is read from right to left (image).

 

• What is the definition of YHWH?

To quote:

“Yahweh, the god of the Israelites, whose name was revealed to Moses as four Hebrew consonants (YHWH) called the tetragrammaton.

After the Babylonian Exile (6th century BCE), and especially from the 3rd century BCE on, Jews ceased to use the name Yahweh for two reasons. As Judaism became a universal rather than merely local religion, the more common noun Elohim, meaning “God,” tended to replace Yahweh to demonstrate the universal sovereignty of Israel’s God over all others. At the same time, the divine name was increasingly regarded as too sacred to be uttered; it was thus replaced vocally in the synagogue ritual by the Hebrew word Adonai (“My Lord”), which was translated as Kyrios (“Lord”) in the Septuagint, the Greek version of the Hebrew Scriptures.” – Britannica

Source: https://www.britannica.com/topic/Yahweh

 

• Example of Commentaries from Scholars agreeing to this Trinity supporting argument

 

 

• Why I don’t agree to the ‘alternate explanation’ that it refers to the ‘angel of the LORD’.

Please consider ‘wisely’:

The phrase “angel of the LORD” in the verse prior Zechariah 3:1 is distinct and not found in this verse though some commentators relate it & I disagree since only YHWH is mentioned in this verse.

Best is, the existence of the phrase “angel of the LORD” or “angel of YHWH” just one verse before (in Zechariah 3:1) as compared to “only YHWH” (in Zechariah 3:2) clearly shows that the author is making a distinction & is accurate to the choice of words used.

Perhaps it’s the understanding of “some who limit God using human-logic” (via the pronoun or persons argument) against the Concept of Trinity are actually “wrong” here (I believe so and agree with the Trinity supporting commentators on this).

For comparison

“And he shewed me Joshua the high priest standing before the angel of the LORD, and Satan standing at his right hand to resist him.” (Zechariah 3:1, KJV)

 

 

• Is there a New Testament Verse which says that Christ is Equal to the Father?

Yes, please consider:  “I and My Father are one.” – Lord Jesus Christ (John 10:30, KJV)

And a verse actually mentioning the word “equality” from apostle Paul himself:

“Let this mind be in you, which was also in Christ Jesus:  Who [Lord Jesus Christ], being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God: “ (Philippians 2:5 – 6, KJV)

[emphasis mine]

Which ‘God’ is being referred to in Philippians 2:6 above? Is it a figure of speech such as the one found in Exodus 7:1?

“And the LORD said unto Moses, See, I have made thee a god to Pharaoh: and Aaron thy brother shall be thy prophet.” (Exodus 7:1, KJV)

It is not a figure of speech like the context of Exodus 7:1 clearly reveals. Exodus 7:1 does not speak of any equality of Moses to the LORD (YHWH) in any way but rather it is YHWH Himself (Blessed be His Holy Name) Who is ‘making Moses as a god to Pharaoh’ though Moses is ‘just a man’ (crisp clear in Scripture).

Thus, how about in Philippians 2:6? Which God does it refer to if it’s not a figure of speech at all?  Philippians 2:6 is NOT a figure of speech as anyone reading it can easily see that apostle Paul is mentioning some Factual Statements regarding our Blessed Lord & Savior, Jesus Christ. The “God” (in Philippians 2:6) to Whom Christ is said to be Equal is “God the Father” (in Context of Definition in this chapter itself, namely in Philippians 2:9 and Philippians 2:11):

“Wherefore God also hath highly exalted Him [Christ Jesus], and given Him a Name which is above every name:  And that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.” (Philippians 2:9, 11, KJV)

“In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.” – apostle John (John 1:1, KJV)

“And without controversy Great is the Mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the Flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory.” – apostle Paul (1 Timothy 3:16, KJV)

Indeed, Christ left His God-Ship due to His Greatest Humility to Save the World, for more details please consider:

https://www.anonymouschristian.org/blog/nicene-creed-is-the-father-greater-or-equal-to-christ/