Accurate Exegesis – God’s Will in Two Points
(i) Men called to do God’s Will
Example: We are called not to lie. Some may fail while others succeed in fulfilling to some extent in our lives. God’s Will did not fail but rather in such failures, we failed to fulfill His Perfect Will.
(ii) Christ called to Do God’s Will
Lord Jesus Christ NEVER Fails. That’s why Salvation of the Whole World as spoken of in Holy Scripture will comes to pass, be it into the ages to come (Inevitable).
That’s why Scripture pertaining to Salvation of All men (for example, 1 Timothy 2:4 or 1 Timothy 4:10 or John 12:32) will all come to pass eventually despite Judgment (James 2:13, 1 Peter 4:5 – 6) simply because Christ NEVER Fails (2 Timothy 2:13, Romans 3:3 – 4).
Conclusion
When exegesis of Scripture fails to distinguish verses in the Biblical context of the two cases above with regards to “God’s Will” (The Final Unchangeable Say), we also end up ‘failing’ God in our Theology as well fulfilling case (i).
All these failures of ours NEVER affects His Will permanently (Romans 3:3 – 4) as Christ Will triumph (Romans 3:22) and Save the World (1 John 2:2, John 4:42, 1 John 4:14) all “as it is written” in the Original languages of Scripture which are more seen through literal translations of the Bible.
We are still in darkness regarding His Great Light (which has “no” darkness at all) & continue to live in a time where Bible scholars still define “world” (kosmos in Greek) as “Gentiles” (though the word for Gentiles exist separately) for example in verses such as 1 John 2:2 or 1 John 4:14 or 2 Corinthians 5:19 “failing” to “see” the Biblical Definition below:
“He was in the world, and the world was made through Him, and the world did not know Him.” (John 1:10, NASB)
So, does “world” mean “Gentiles”?
Also, if God wanted to refer to Gentiles, the equivalent Greek word exists & is found in other verses (not here). With such imperfections and irresponsible use of the term ‘context’, we stand ‘deceived’ simply because we “failed” to preach “what is written” in these verses.
Similarly, in verses such as Romans 5:18 – 19 or 1 Corinthians 15:22, again we find such scholars go in error thinking that “All men” is “all believers or those who believe or the church or the Ecclesia” where the Greek phrases meaning each is distinct & found elsewhere in Scripture but NOT here.
When we “fail” to believe that the Word of God is accurate to the “Last word used”, we end up believing theologies such that “All men” is “believers”.
Apostle Paul is NOT confused by the distinction between “all men” vs “those who believe” or “Jew vs Gentile” or “Male vs Female” and his inspired writing is ‘clear’. We may it unclear by not accepting what is written.
An illustration, please consider:
1) Which is Romans 5:18 as found in your Bible?
“So then as through one transgression there resulted condemnation to all believers, even so through one act of righteousness there resulted justification of life to all believers.” (which Bible? But some scholars say this verbally)
Or
“So then as through one transgression there resulted condemnation to all men, even so through one act of righteousness there resulted justification of life to all men.” (Romans 5:18, NASB)
Also, please note that the same way we are ‘automatically’ condemned by the transgression, the verse above clearly promises an ‘automatic’ justification of life to the same ‘all men’ through Christ’s Perfect Act.
To become true, I.e. Come to pass as a testimony, it is for the ‘appointed divine times’ (‘Kairois’ – plural moments) for His Ransom to ‘apply’ as “it is written” in 1 Timothy 2:6. So, this ‘automatic’ Justification of life (as described also in Romans 3:22) to “ALL” at its own “times” (proving some have to go through afterlife Judgments first, e.g. 1 Peter 4:5 – 6 of which believers are exempted from it, John 5:24).
(2) Now, which is Romans 5:19 in your Bible?
“For as through the one man’s disobedience the believers were made sinners, even so through the obedience of the One the believers will be made righteous.” (which Bible? But some scholars say this too!)
Or
“For as through the one man’s disobedience the many were made sinners, even so through the obedience of the One the many will be made righteous.” (Romans 5:19, NASB)
Thus, “the many” must mean “as many as those sinned through Adam” (which certainly refers to “all men” automatically, right?). Yes and this agrees with the verse before in Romans 5:18 perfectly.
We see that the Bible is accurate to the last word used anywhere literally translated, these Truths are “plain” to see. If God wanted to mean or refer to “believers”, “His People”, “His sheep” or the “Ecclesia”, these words are different & exist equivalently in Greek but is NOT found in these set of verses.
3) How about verses which speak of believers only?
For example:
“She will bear a Son; and you shall call His name Jesus, for He will save His people from their sins.” (Matthew 1:21, NASB)
Such verses highlight that He is a Saviour first, for “His People” (be it Israel or believers meant here). Thus, it shows a special focus and not Limiting Him to save them “only” as so commonly erred. In fact, verses such as 1 Timothy 4:10 proves that God Will Save All men but ‘believers’ are more ‘special’ for believing in Him first agreeing with 1 Timothy 2:4 as “it is written” too.
4) Accuracy
A Good example to show the Bible’s accuracy regarding the word “all men” and how it is referring to a different thing which includes “believers” or “those who believe” would be 1 Timothy 4:10 where both these phrases are found in this ‘same’ verse (even in Romans 3:22 where only literal translations such as YLT or even the KJV in this case show this truth of the existence of both the words “All” and “those believing” as it occurs ‘distinctly’ referring to both groups separately in this verse).
Under such more accurate translation, are we able to see how say, 1 Timothy 4:10 & Romans 3:22 are alike in message?
Thus these are not the same and best is, apostle Paul mentions in this ‘same’ letter in 1 Timothy 2:4 that God Will have “all men” to be “saved” eventually agreeing to point (ii) above regarding God’s Will & thus, it will eventually come to pass beyond Hell & Judgment!
Spiritual “blindness” is NOT being able to see “as it is written”. Amazing isn’t it? We ‘see’ what is not written, often against ‘what is written’ & even choose to believe that, strange indeed!
Please note the word “All things” in verse in picture (Matthew 11:27) whose ‘definition’ (Colossians 1:16) and ‘Reconciliation’ (Colossians 1:20) is revealed later through apostle Paul too (Colossians 1:26) and “knowing” these too ‘regarding the all things’ as the ‘Son Reveals’ (Matthew 11:27) certainly leads to the “Rest” as promised next in the subsequent verse in Matthew 11:28. Deep.
‘Blessed Saviour of the World’
