Two Gospels – Gospel to the Jews vs Gospel to the Gentiles

For example, how must Jewish believers handle the Book of Galatians?

Firstly, why are Jewish believers worried about the Book of Galatians?

For them [Jewish believers], apostle Paul seems to be teaching ‘against Law Observances’ in this Book. It’s an ancient accusation against apostle Paul as even the verse below ‘clearly’ writes (a great common misunderstanding of apostle Paul’s Writings to the ‘intended audience’):

“and they have been told about you [apostle Paul], that you are teaching all the Jews who are among the Gentiles to forsake Moses, telling them not to circumcise their children nor to walk according to the customs.” – Jewish leaders of the ancient church (Acts 21:21, NASB)

There is a Law observance difference [as God Willed it such according to the New Testament verses quoted too] between a Jewish believer (Gospel to the circumcision, Galatians 2:7 – 9, Acts 21:24) and a Gentile believer (Gospel to the uncircumcision, Galatians 2:7 – 9, Acts 21:25) as verses below describe clearly too.

For example, here are the verses from the Book of Galatians itself proving that this Holy Writing is addressed to the ‘Gentiles only’ and NOT Jewish believers (Context). Yes please note word ‘Gentile’ or ‘Jewish’ or ‘Circumcision’ or ‘Uncircumcision’ in each verse quoted here ‘carefully’ to ‘understand’ this earthly Biblical distinction made ‘correctly’:

 

“It was because of a revelation that I went up; and I submitted to them the gospel which I preach among the Gentiles, but I did so in private to those who were of reputation, for fear that I might be running, or had run, in vain.” – apostle Paul (Galatians 2:2, NASB)

 

“But on the contrary, seeing that I had been entrusted with the gospel to the uncircumcised, just as Peter had been to the circumcised

(for He [God] who effectually worked for Peter in his apostleship to the circumcised effectually worked for me also to the Gentiles),

and recognizing the grace that had been given to me, James and Cephas and John, who were reputed to be pillars, gave to me and Barnabas the right hand of fellowship, so that we might go to the Gentiles and they to the circumcised.” – apostle Paul (Galatians 2:7 – 9, NASB)

 

For a detailed discussion regarding this Biblical Fact with “verses” for each ‘claim’ made, please consider the write-up below for edification:

 

https://www.anonymouschristian.org/blog/sabbath-and-pork-dilemma-for-gentile-believers/

 

What is the common ground in ministry between these two? The next verse says —-> to ‘remember the poor’:

“They only asked us to remember the poor—the very thing I also was eager to do.” – apostle Paul (Galatians 2:10, NASB)

Does that mean that the Jews and Gentile believers are saved differently?

No. We are saved by ‘His Faith, the Faith of Jesus Christ only’ (Romans 3:22) though we differ in ‘Law Observances only’ [a Law observance gives rewards of obedience relative to the Law we are commanded to obey, Romans 3:28, Matthew 5:19 —-> and NOT Salvation which is a Free Gift by the Faith of Jesus Christ Alone, Titus 3:5] :

 

“Or is God the God of Jews only? Is He not the God of Gentiles also? Yes, of Gentiles also, since indeed God who will justify the circumcised by faith and the uncircumcised through faith is one.” – apostle Paul (Romans 3:29 – 30, NASB)

 

“Whoever then shall break one of the least of these commandments and shall teach others the same, he will be called least in the kingdom of the heavens; but whoever shall keep and shall teach them, he will be called great in the kingdom of the heavens.” – Lord Jesus Christ (Matthew 5:19, BLB)

“He saved us, not on the basis of deeds which we have done in righteousness, but according to His mercy, by the washing of regeneration and renewing by the Holy Spirit,” (Titus 3:5, NASB)

Yes, the Faith which Saves us is NOT ‘our faith’ (i.e. ‘not of ourselves’ —> including ‘not of our faith too’) but the ‘Faith of God’ (Romans 3:3 – 4) = ‘Faith of Jesus Christ’ (Romans 3:22) which is a ‘free Gift’ (Ephesians 2:8) and is only seen when these verses are ‘accurately’ translated too:

“For by Grace you have been saved through Faith; and that not of yourselves, it is the Gift of God;” – apostle Paul (Ephesians 2:8, NASB)

“For what if some did not believe? shall their unbelief make the Faith of God without effect?

God forbid: yea, let God be true, but every man a liar; as it is written, That Thou [God] mightest be justified in Thy [God’s] sayings, and mightest overcome when Thou [God] art judged.” – apostle Paul (Romans 3:3 – 4, KJV)

“Even the Righteousness of God which is by Faith of Jesus Christ unto all and upon all them that believe: for there is no difference:” – apostle Paul (Romans 3:22, KJV)

 

Please note that NO verse says that a Gentile believer needs to convert into being a Jewish believer and vice versa as some modern heresies teach.

In fact, these ‘Jewish believers only’ were called ‘Nazarenes’ as even some sources from history prove too:

“It was the term used to identify the predominantly Jewish sect that believed Jesus was the Messiah. When this sect branched into the Gentile world, they became known as Christians.” – F.L. Cross & E.A. Livingston, The Oxford Dictionary of the Christian Church, Oxford University Press, 1989. p 957 & 722.

“The Fathers of the Church, while the Gospel according to the Hebrews was yet extant in its entirety, referred to it always with respect, often with reverence: some of them unhesitatingly accepted it as being what tradition affirmed it to be — the work of Matthew — and even those who have not put on record their expression of this opinion have not questioned it. Is such an attitude consistent with the supposition that the Gospel according to the Hebrews was a work of heretical tendencies? This applies with tenfold force to Jerome. After copying it, would he, if he had seen heresy in it, have translated it for public dissemination into both Greek and Latin, and have continued to favor the tradition of its Matthaean authorship? And Jerome, be it observed, not only quotes all three of these passages without disapprobation; he actually quotes two of them (Fr. 6 and Fr. 8) with approval.” – The Gospel According to the Hebrews, Edward Byron Nicholson, C. Kegan Paul & Co., 1879. p.82

 

Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gospel_of_the_Nazarenes

 

Here’s a quote from a Jewish Encyclopedia itself revealing the ‘claimed facts’:

Jerome’s Account.

“What shall I say of the Ebionites who pretend to be Christians? To-day there still exists among the Jews in all the synagogues of the East a heresy which is called that of the Minæans, and which is still condemned by the Pharisees; [its followers] are ordinarily called ‘Nazarenes’; they believe that Christ, the son of God, was born of the Virgin Mary, and they hold him to be the one who suffered under Pontius Pilate and ascended to heaven, and in whom we also believe. But while they pretend to be both Jews and Christians, they are neither.”

The Nazarenes, then, recognized Jesus, though it appears from occasional references to them that they considered the Mosaic law binding only for those born within Judaism, while the Ebionites considered this law binding for all men (Hippolytus, “Comm. in Jes.” i. 12). The Nazarenes therefore rejected Paul, the apostle to the Gentiles. Some accordingly declared even that the Nazarenes were Jews, as, for instance, Theodoret (“Hær. Fab.” ii. 2: οἱ δὲ Ναζωραῖοι Ἰουδαῖοί εἰσι); that they exalted Jesus as a just man, and that they read the Gospel of Peter; fragments of this Gospel of Peter have been preserved (Preuschen, l.c. p. 13). Aside from these references, Theodoret, however, makes the mistake of confounding the Nazarenes and Ebionites; he is the last one of the Church Fathers to refer to the Nazarenes, who probably were absorbed in the course of the fifth century partly by Judaism and partly by Christianity.

The term “Minæans,” which Jerome applies to the Nazarenes, recalls the word “min,” frequently used in rabbinical literature to designate heretics, chiefly the Christians still following Jewish customs; the Rabbis knew only Judæo-Christians, who were either Ebionites or Nazarenes. Hence they applied the name “Noẓri” to all Christians, this term remaining in Jewish literature down to the present time the designation for Christians. The ChurchFathers, Tertullian, for instance (“Adversus Marcion.” iv. 8), knew this very well; and Epiphanius and Jerome say of a certain prayer alleged to be directed against the Christians that although the Jews say “Nazarenes” they mean “Christians” (“J. Q. R.” v. 131). In the Koran also the Christians are called “Al-Naṣara.” The name may be traced back to Nazareth, Jesus’ birthplace. The Mandæans still designate themselves as “Nasoraya”; and they were formerly incorrectly regarded as the remnant of the Nazarenes (W. Brandt, “Die Mandäische Religion,” p. 140, Leipsic, 1889).

Source: http://www.jewishencyclopedia.com/articles/11393-nazarenes

Peace to you

 

*I’m not endorsing the books in image but just that I like the images, Lol