Default Feature Image for Post
| | |

Law of Christ – Divorce and Remarriage

Divorced and Remarried – Unsaved Christians?




Is Believing that the ‘relatively innocent’ party in a Divorced can Remarry be Doctrinally Dangerous to the point that such a Denomination/Church may be “unsaved” even if they support it only?




  1. I know that some of the Biggest Protestant Churches/Denominations allow the ‘relatively innocent party in a divorce to remarry’. They quote Christ and Apostle Paul to have taught it but strangely “no early Church Leader” (e. g. In the first 500 years or 1500 years of Mainstream Christianity) ever understood those same Verses to mean ‘what these modern scholars say’ (strange, isn’t it?). All early church leaders disallowed a divorced to remarry under any circumstances as the proper understanding of Lord Jesus Christ’s Words in the New Testament till modern leaders appeared teaching otherwise (yes, within the last 500 years only this false teaching flourished).


  1. The Shepherd of Hermas Scripture seems to point to such Christians to be “unsaved”, not just them but also “those who approve them” agreeing with First Christianity’s Earliest Church Leaders who understood Lord Jesus Christ’s Purest Words Likewise.


To quote (where in the example given below, ‘the husband’ is the ‘relatively innocent party’):


“… Let him divorce her,” saith he, “and let the husband abide alone: but if after divorcing his wife he shall marry another, he likewise committeth adultery.”… If therefore in such deeds as these likewise a man continue and repent not, keep away from him, and live not with him. Otherwise, thou also art a partaker of his sin… For this cause ye were enjoined to remain single, whether husband or wife; for in such cases repentance is possible…” – The Angel which Presideth Over Repentance in the Shepherd of Hermas (Mandate 4, Verses 1[29]:6, 8, 9, 10)




Please consider ‘carefully’ from the above:


1) Such Divorced-Remarried Relatively Innocent Christians to be “unsaved” = the phrase “… “and let the husband abide alone: but if after divorcing his wife he shall marry another, he likewise committeth adultery…”


2) Christians who approve the Divorced to Remarry Doctrine may also be “unsaved”, i. e. “those who approve them” = the phrase “… in such deeds as these likewise a man continue and repent not, keep away from him, and live not with him. Otherwise, thou also art a partaker of his sin…” = in particular the phrase “… thou also art a partaker of his sin…” seems to point to this, right?


3) Only those Divorced and who remained “single” may attain to Repentance = the phrase “… For this cause ye were enjoined to remain single [after Divorce, see quote in full below next to understand this context], whether husband or wife; for in such cases repentance is possible…”


Here’s that quote in Full from the Shepherd of Hermas Scripture’s Mandate 4:


“Mandate 4


1[29]:1 “I charge thee, “saith he, “to keep purity, and let not a thought enter into thy heart concerning another’s wife, or concerning fornication, or concerning any such like evil deeds; for in so doing thou commitest a great sin. But remember thine own wife always, and thou shalt never go wrong.


1[29]:2 For should this desire enter into thine heart, thou wilt go wrong, and should any other as evil as this, thou commitest sin. For this desire in a servant of God is a great sin; and if any man doeth this evil deed, he worketh out death for himself.


1[29]:3 Look to it therefore. Abstain from this desire; for, where holiness dwelleth, there lawlessness ought not to enter into the heart of a righteous man.”


1[29]:4 I say to him, “Sir, permit me to ask thee a few more questions” “Say on,” saith he. “Sir,” say I, “if a man who has a wife that is faithful in the Lord detect her in adultery, doth the husband sin in living with her?”


1[29]:5 “So long as he is ignorant,” saith he, “he sinneth not; but if the husband know of her sin, and the wife repent not, but continue in her fornication, and her husband live with her, he makes himself responsible for her sin and an accomplice in her adultery.”


1[29]:6 “What then, Sir,” say I, “shall the husband do, if the wife continue in this case?” “Let him divorce her,” saith he, “and let the husband abide alone: but if after divorcing his wife he shall marry another, he likewise committeth adultery.”


1[29]:7 “If then, Sir,” say I, “after the wife is divorced, she repent and desire to return to her own husband, shall she not be received?”


1[29]:8 “Certainly,” saith he, “if the husband receiveth her not, he sinneth and bringeth great sin upon himself; nay, one who hath sinned and repented must be received, yet not often; for there is but one repentance for the servants of God. For the sake of her repentance therefore the husband ought not to marry. This is the manner of acting enjoined on husband and wife.


1[29]:9 Not only,” saith he, “is it adultery, if a man pollute his flesh, but whosoever doeth things like unto the heathen committeth adultery. If therefore in such deeds as these likewise a man continue and repent not, keep away from him, and live not with him. Otherwise, thou also art a partaker of his sin.


1[29]:10 For this cause ye were enjoined to remain single, whether husband or wife; for in such cases repentance is possible.


1[29]:11 I,” said he, “am not giving an excuse that this matter should be concluded thus, but to the end that the sinner should sin no more. But as concerning his former sin, there is One Who is able to give healing; it is He Who hath authority over all things.”


2[30]:1 I asked him again, saying, “Seeing that the Lord held me worthy that thou shouldest always dwell with me, suffer me still to say a few words, since I understand nothing, and my heart has been made dense by my former deeds. Make me to understand, for I am very foolish, and I apprehend absolutely nothing.”


2[30]:2 He answered and said unto me, “I,” saith he, “preside over repentance, and I give understanding to all who repent. Nay, thinkest thou not,” saith he, “that this very act of repentance is understanding? To repent is great understanding,” saith he. “For the man that hath sinned understandeth that he hath done evil before the Lord, and the deed which he hath done entereth into his heart, and he repenteth, and doeth no more evil, but doeth good lavishly, and humbleth his own soul and putteth it to torture because it sinned. Thou seest then that repentance is great understanding.”


2[30]:3 “It is on this account therefore, Sir,” say I, “that I enquire everything accurately of thee; first, because I am a sinner; secondly, because I know not what deeds I must do that I may live, for my sins are many and various.”


2[30]:4 “Thou shalt live,” saith he, “if thou keep my commandments and walk in them and whosoever shall hear these commandments and keep them, shall live unto God.”


3[31]:1 “I will still proceed, Sir,” say I, “to ask a further question.” “Speak on,” saith he. “I have heard, Sir,” say I, “from certain teachers, that there is no other repentance, save that which took place when we rent down into the water and obtained remission of our former sins.”


3[31]:2 He saith to me; “Thou hast well heard; for so it is. For he that hath received remission of sins ought no longer to sin, but to dwell in purity.


3[31]:3 But, since thou enquirest all things accurately, I will declare unto thee this also, so as to give no excuse to those who shall hereafter believe or those who have already believed, on the Lord. For they that have already believed, or shall hereafter believe, have not repentance for sins, but have only remission of their former sins.


3[31]:4 To those then that were called before these days the Lord has appointed repentance. For the Lord, being a discerner of hearts and foreknowing all things, perceived the weakness of men and the manifold wiles of the devil, how that he will be doing some mischief to the servants of God, and will deal wickedly with them.


3[31]:5 The Lord then, being very compassionate, had pity on His handiwork, and appointed this (opportunity of) repentance, and to me was given the authority over this repentance.


3[31]:6 But I say unto you,” saith he, “if after this great and holy calling any one, being tempted of the devil, shall commit sin, he hath only one (opportunity of) repentance. But if he sin off-hand and repent, repentance is unprofitable for such a man; for he shall live with difficulty.”


3[31]:7 I say unto him, “I was quickened unto life again, when I heard these things from thee so precisely. For I know that, if I shall add no more to my sins, I shall be saved.” “Thou shalt be saved,” he saith, “thou and all, as many as shall do these things.”


4[32]:1 I asked him again, saying, “Sir, since once thou dost bear with me, declare unto me this further matter also.” “Say on,” saith he. “If a wife, Sir,” say I, “or, it may be, a husband fall asleep, and one of them marry, doth the one that marrieth sin?”


4[32]:2 “He sinneth not,” saith he, “but if he remain single, he investeth himself with more exceeding honor and with great glory before the Lord; yet even if he should marry, he sinneth not.


4[32]:3 Preserve purity and holiness therefore, and thou shalt live unto God. All these things, which I speak and shall hereafter speak unto thee, guard from this time forward, from the day when thou wast committed unto me, and I will dwell in thy house.


4[32]:4 But for thy former transgressions there shall be remission, if thou keepest my commandments. Yea, and all shall have remission, if they keep these my commandments, and walk in this purity.” – Angel who Presideth over Repentance (Mandate 4, Shepherd of Hermas)




How Reliable is the Shepherd of Hermas?


It is Considered ‘Equal to Scripture’ in First Christianity (by all the Ancient Holiest Church Leaders) and till Today in Ancient Churches and so please guard your mouth unless you proclaim a Blasphemy in addition to what is already a Serious Doctrinal Error as Discussed in Detail in link below:


Shepherd of Hermas – Afterlife Judgment and Repentance – FAQ


Even if by God's Mercy (He can), you're still Saved to be part of the First Resurrection the Shepherd of Hermas' quote makes me doubt that these may be admitted into the "hundredfold" category but may be only of the "sixty fold or thirty fold or unsaved". Is the fulfillment of the flesh to marry after divorce and defending such a doctrine be really worth it in the end especially in light of the Scary Shepherd of Hermas Warning quoted prior?


What to do if one has committed such an error? Pray and ask God as I think that the Wisest move would be to Divorce again and Remain single for the rest of one's lives taking care of any Biblically illegitimate children via such unions in all purity and responsibility. This may be the Safest Route in my Judgment but if God has Mercy, that's His Choice and I cannot Decide His Verdict.


Sincerely, May God have Mercy on such Megachurches to Major Denominations (you know who you are) who have taken the wrong official position on this very Sensitive Doctrine and may those members who took an Oath to that Doctrine as part of their membership agenda mostly unknowingly (no wonder Christ Disallowed All Religious Oaths, 'Context', Matthew 5:34) to be Forgiven or Find Leniency in Judgment as God Wills. More reading in link below:





Peace to you











Here are some edifying facts and discussion regarding "Divorce and Remarriage" which is important since it is part of the "Law of Christ" for "believers to obey" under this New Testament age.





1) What is the Law of Christ?


In Verses below apostle Paul mentions distinctly the "Law of Christ" vs the "Law of Moses (Torah, implied)" meaning that the "Law of Christ" still applies to a 'believer' while a believer may be 'generally free from the Law of Moses (Torah)':


"To the Jews I became as a Jew, so that I might win Jews; to those who are under the Law, as under the Law though not being myself under the Law, so that I might win those who are under the Law;


to those who are without law, as without law, though not being without the law of God but under the law of Christ, so that I might win those who are without law." (1 Corinthians 9:20 - 21, NASB)




"And unto the Jews I became as a Jew, that I might gain the Jews; to them that are under the law, as under the law, that I might gain them that are under the law;


To them that are without law, as without law, (being not without law to God, but under the law to Christ,) that I might gain them that are without law." (1 Corinthians 9:20 - 21, KJV)


In Verses above, Context is based on:


the Law = Law of Moses (The Torah)


Law of God = the Torah and the Law of Christ


the Law of Christ = Lord Jesus Christ's Selected Commands from the Torah toward the Gentile believers (e.g. Acts 21:24 - 25, Acts 15:20, 29) via His Apostles (2 Peter 3:2, Acts 1:2) in New Testament Inspired Writing too (1 Corinthians 14:37).


So, apostle Paul reiterates in Verses above that though we may be free from the Torah as Gentiles but we are NOT free from the Law of God completely but are still under [the obedience] toward the Law of Christ. Simple as it is Written, isn't it?


2) How is the Law of Christ determined?


The Law of Christ is given by Lord Jesus Christ through His Apostles which is found in WRITTEN New Testament Scripture (please note the words WRITING, APOSTLES, His HOLY SPIRIT etc.) in Verses below to 'realize this often ignored Biblical Truth' (why? we generally 'like lawlessness which is a natural tendency when we are being led in the flesh'):


"Or did the word of God originate with you? Or are you the only people it has reached? If anyone thinks they are a prophet or otherwise gifted by the Spirit, let them acknowledge that what I am writing to you is the Lord’s command." (1 Corinthians 14:36 - 37, NIV)


"that you should remember the words spoken beforehand by the holy prophets and the commandment of the Lord and Savior spoken by your apostles." (2 Peter 3:2, NASB)


"until the day when He was taken up to heaven, after He had by the Holy Spirit given orders to the apostles whom He had chosen." (Acts 1:2, NASB)


3) What if I wish to ignore or reject the Law of Christ (i.e. the Law of God in this New Testament age)?


We may receive the 'same level of rejection' we did toward the Law of God and His Blessed Words in Principle of the Verse below even 'losing our rights to priesthood in His Kingdom if we are not careful' (because which priest of God would not delight in His Law?):


"My people are destroyed for lack of knowledge. Because you have rejected knowledge, I also will reject you from being My priest. Since you have forgotten the law of your God, I also will forget your children." (Hosea 4:6, NASB)


This agrees with the Rejection uttered with regards to the "Written New Testament Commands of Christ in apostle Paul's Inspired Letters" (1 Corinthians 14:37) as the Warning is mentioned in the next Verse below (perfect context of 'consecutive verses'):


"But if anyone ignores this, they will themselves be ignored" (1 Corinthians 14:38, NIV)


Unless God has Mercy on whom He Wills (Romans 9:15 - 16), we will be held accountable even for 'our words' (Matthew 12:37) especially in regards to 'teaching correct doctrine according to His Word too' (James 3:1).


I'm pretty sure that His Words are NOT going to just 'pass away' (Matthew 24:35).


4) Does the Law of Christ (New Testament Rule and Commands) apply to ALL CHURCHES?


Yes, regarding the 'Divorce and remarrying' or the Marriage topic in general, God through apostle Paul assigns these RULES to ALL CHURCHES in a Verse from this SAME Chapter discussing this (which is 1 Corinthians 7):


"Only, as the Lord has assigned to each one, as God has called each, in this manner let him walk. And so I direct in ALL the CHURCHES. ... what MATTERS is the KEEPING of the COMMANDMENTS of God." (1 Corinthians 7:17, 19, highlighted, NASB)


5) Law of Christ - Divorce and Remarriage example


I wish to focus briefly on what the Bible teaches regarding Divorce and remarriage to understand the Law of Christ in this aspect which easily uncovers many common misunderstandings and manipulations done with these same set of Verses (decide for yourselves which is right after reading both sides please, thank you):


(i) Divorced Christians Cannot Remarry


"And I say to you, whoever divorces his wife, except for immorality, and marries another woman commits adultery." - Lord Jesus Christ (Matthew 19:9, NASB)


"but I say to you that everyone who divorces his wife, except for the reason of unchastity, makes her commit adultery; and whoever marries a divorced woman commits adultery." - Lord Jesus Christ (Matthew 5:32, NASB)


Please note that Christ is NOT allowing 'divorce-remarrying only for the sexual immorality case' (as the AOG seem to argue falsely using these Verses) but rather our Blessed Saviour is Teaching two things here:


  1. a) One can ONLY Divorce his wife for the reason of unchastity or sexual immorality.


Proof phrases:


"And I say to you, whoever divorces his wife, except for immorality" (Matthew 19:9, NASB)


"but I say to you that everyone who divorces his wife, except for the reason of unchastity, makes her commit adultery" (Matthew 5:32, NASB)


  1. b) One who marries a divorced or if a divorcee remarries, it is considered as 'sexual immorality'.


Proof phrases:


"whoever divorces his wife, ... and marries another woman commits adultery" (Matthew 19:9, NASB)


"whoever marries a divorced woman commits adultery" (Matthew 5:32, NASB)


Comment: Does it mean that one can only divorce for sexual immorality? How about domestic abuse?


Simple, please consider the Verses below first:


"But to the married I give instructions, not I, but the Lord, that the wife should not leave her husband (but if she does leave, she must remain unmarried, or else be reconciled to her husband), and that the husband should not divorce his wife." - apostle Paul (1 Corinthians 7:10 - 11, NASB)




Note first that the Verses above refer to those who are "married" establishing context here. Next, the word translated as "leave" (in both 1 Corinthians 7:10 and 1 Corinthians 7:11) come from the Greek Word "chórizó" which means 'to leave or vacate' which could mean either 'being separated or being divorced'.


What's the difference?


Being 'separated' means that one is not necessarily divorced as one can be staying away from a person. This may apply to the case of a domestic abuse where by Civil Law, a wife may be separated from her husband without a certificate of divorce to protect her in such equivalent cases.


The idea of 'divorce' comes with a 'written certificate' in the Law of Moses (as Matthew 5:31 mentions too):


"It hath been said, Whosoever shall put away his wife, let him give her a WRITING of DIVORCEMENT:" - Lord Jesus Christ (Matthew 5:31, KJV)


So, a person who is "leaving" ("chórizó") refers to both the 'separated' or 'divorced' cases in 1 Corinthians 7:10 - 11 but ONLY the 'sexual immorality reason permits the divorce (Matthew 5:32) in writing (Matthew 5:31)'. In other words, for domestic abuse or equivalent, a wife may be 'separated' from her husband to protect her without issuing a 'written certificate of divorce' by being 'separated'. Do you see that it is clearly Written in the quoted Verses like that?


This Rule (in 1 Corinthians 7:10 - 11) applies to any couple who have married as a Christian regardless if after divorce, they remain as Christians or not as the phrase "to the married I give instructions, not I, but the Lord" (1 Corinthians 7:10) implies that the Verses in the Gospels (e.g. Matthew 5:32 and Matthew 19:9 also refer to this case too).


In particular, it may be important to note carefully the quantifier "to the married" in 1 Corinthians 7:10 for this case (to determine to whom does this case or rule refer to) as follows:


"to the married" = to those married as Christians prior to the separation having married in the Lord first


(ii) The Rest of the Married case


Apostle Paul then clearly mentions the following rule to "the rest" in the next set of consecutive Verses immediately as follows:


"But to the rest I say, not the Lord, that if any brother has a wife who is an unbeliever, and she consents to live with him, he must not divorce her. And a woman who has an unbelieving husband, and he consents to live with her, she must not send her husband away. For the unbelieving husband is sanctified through his wife, and the unbelieving wife is sanctified through her believing husband; for otherwise your children are unclean, but now they are holy. Yet if the unbelieving one leaves, let him leave; the brother or the sister is not under bondage in such cases, but God has called us to peace. For how do you know, O wife, whether you will save your husband? Or how do you know, O husband, whether you will save your wife?" (1 Corinthians 7:12 - 16, NASB)


Who are "the rest" referred to in this distinct case?


"the rest" = the rest of the married = any of the other married cases excluding the Christian marriage case


For example ("the rest" of the 'marriage cases' certainly includes these):


"the rest" = marriage between a believer and an unbeliever done prior to the conversion of the believer




"the rest" = polygamous marriage (more than one wife) of which some has done prior to becoming a believer too


What is the rule in such cases?


If the 'unbeliever' (spouse) departs, the 'believing' spouse is NOT bound (i.e. "is not under bondage in such cases") with regards to marriage. A Clause for remarriage seem to be permitted here but is NOT mentioned here at all. The encouragement in 1 Corinthians 7:16 is that such a believing spouse should NOT immediately go and 'remarry' (even if they are not bound to the unbeliever who departs, 1 Corinthians 7:15) because you never know if the unbeliever may believe and return to be saved. Can you see it?


"Each man must remain in that condition in which he was called." (1 Corinthians 7:20, NASB)


Yes, at the point when one becomes a Christian, each is to 'remain' in that 'condition' in which he was 'called' (for Salvation, i.e. to be 'saved'), for example:


  1. a) A man with more than one wife must remain with his wives and not divorce them after he converts as a Christian (1 Corinthians 7:20).


  1. b) A person must NOT divorce an unbelieving spouse when one converts into Christianity and as much as possible must try to 'live together' peacefully (1 Corinthians 7:12 - 14) or 'remain' hoping for their return or conversion to be saved (1 Corinthians 7:15 - 16).


I repeat, as apostle Paul did too (Verse below):


"Brethren, each one is to remain with God in that condition in which he was called." (1 Corinthians 7:24, NASB)


(iii) A Common Theological Mistake


Please note a common MISTAKE in Christian denominations which teach some type of remarriage after divorce by linking say Matthew 19:9 to 1 Corinthians 7:15 by claiming that 'such are not in bondage or are not bound to the previous marriage' and hence may remarry. Sounds ear tickling doesn't it?


What's the mistake here? It is so simple but yet they are blind to what is Written in the Verses here. Here an Irrefutable point very few have noted:


Please note the phrase "But to the married I give instructions, not I, but the Lord" (1 Corinthians 7:10) vs the phrase "But to the rest I say, not the Lord" (1 Corinthians 7:12) using the NASB translation. What's difference does it make Theologically to note these distinct phrases?






The phrase "But to the married I give instructions, not I, but the Lord" (1 Corinthians 7:10) ---> means that any commands regarding Divorce or Remarriage Prohibition as it is found in the Gospels MUST refer to 1 Corinthians 7:10 - 11 ONLY ---> because both are given by the LORD HIMSELF meaning these Verses are speaking the SAME TOPIC or CASE.


In other words, the phrase "But to the married I give instructions, not I, but the Lord" (1 Corinthians 7:10 - 11) means that these Commands are from the Lord Directly as it is recorded in the Gospels and thus for example, Matthew 19:9 and Matthew 5:32 must refer to these VERSES ONLY.


Yes, Matthew 19:9 has NOTHING to do with 1 Corinthians 7:15 as some of our brothers have erred greatly in this. This is proven irrefutably by noting the phrase "But to the rest I say, not the Lord" (1 Corinthians 7:12) which describes the "not bound in marriage" case if the unbeliever departs (as mentioned in 1 Corinthians 7:15).


That is, apostle Paul gives an additional command in 1 Corinthians 7:15 which is NOT of the Lord (1 Corinthians 7:12) toward such of the "rest of the married cases". The phrase "not of the Lord" (1 Corinthians 7:12) which includes referring to the "not bound in marriage - case" (1 Corinthians 7:15) means that ---> So, Christ's Words in the Gospels (e.g. Matthew 19:9) CANNOT refer to this Case (1 Corinthians 7:15) because He NEVER Commanded it earlier as apostle Paul reiterates his judgment (by the authority given to him) for such cases by nothing first that these 'are NOT Commands of the Lord'.


Simply put, the phrase:


"But to the married I give instructions, not I, but the Lord" (1 Corinthians 7:10 - 11) = This set of Verses refer to Commands given by the Lord with regards to the "married" in the aspect of divorce too (e.g. Matthew 19:9) = So, Matthew 19:9 can be viewed together with 1 Corinthians 7:10 -11 as the SAME Context.


For example, the fact that the divorced CANNOT remarry (as mentioned in Matthew 19:9) clearly AGREES to the phrase "remain unmarried" (in 1 Corinthians 7:11) perfectly. No contradictions in exegesis here proving this to be a true interpretation.


Similarly, the phrase:


"But to the rest I say, not the Lord" (1 Corinthians 7:12 - 16) = the Lord never said this proving for example that 1 Corinthians 7:15 NEVER refers to His Words in the Gospels earlier with regards to this same topic = That is, in particular 1 Corinthians 7:15 does NOT and CANNOT refer to for example Matthew 19:9 and the popular theological error of linking these to the 'allowing the divorced to remarry' is clearly FALSE.


Meaning wise, please consider:


"But to the rest I say, not the Lord" (1 Corinthians 7:12) = referring to the 'rest of the married case as discussed prior', some may be allowed to remarry not being bound in such cases (1 Corinthians 7:15) but it is discouraged and it is better to wait for the unbelieving spouse remaining as unmarried after divorced too to see if he/she would return to believe and be saved perhaps (1 Corinthians 7:16).


In short, only apostle Paul taught 'remarriage possibility' in 1 Corinthians 7:15 with regards to the "rest of the married case" (e.g. where one spouse is an unbeliever prior) and Christ NEVER taught any REMARRIAGE after DIVORCE as apostle Paul means this in this phrase "But to the rest I say, not the Lord" (1 Corinthians 7:12) distinctly.


Let's accept correction from His Written Word Wisely:


"Do not reprove a scoffer, or he will hate you, Reprove a wise man and he will love you." (Proverbs 9:8, NASB)


The Law of Christ has 'other aspects' (or topics too) such as 'bearing each other's burdens' (e.g. help each other financially, materially, sharing knowledge etc.):


"Bear one another's burdens, and thereby fulfill the law of Christ." (Galatians 6:2, NASB)


A Closely related post for further edification, please consider:


Let us not 'remain deceived':


"wanting to be teachers of the Law, even though they do not understand either what they are saying or the matters about which they make confident assertions." - apostle Paul (1 Timothy 1:7, NASB)


(iv) When a Spouse Dies, the Widow or Widower Case


A Remarriage "in the Lord" is allowed:


"A wife is bound as long as her husband lives; but if her husband is dead, she is free to be married to whom she wishes, only in the Lord." (1 Corinthians 7:39, NASB)


However apostle Paul thinks that a person whose spouse has died (i.e. a widow or widower, implied) is 'better off happier' if he/she does NOT remarry as he mentions in the same breath the following judgment:


"But in my opinion she is happier if she remains as she is; and I think that I also have the Spirit of God." (1 Corinthians 7:40, NASB)


6) Can we Love God without Obeying Him?


It doesn't seem to be possible according to this Verse:


"If you love Me, you will keep My commandments." - Lord Jesus Christ (John 14:15, NASB)


Can we His Friends without obeying His Commands?


"You are My friends if you do what I command you." - Lord Jesus Christ (John 15:14, NASB)


Can we know Him without knowing His Commands?


"He who has My commandments and keeps them is the one who loves Me; and he who loves Me will be loved by My Father, and I will love him and will disclose Myself to him." - Lord Jesus Christ (John 14:21, NASB)


I know that Christianity in general do obey many of His Commands (which is Good, Well Done!) but if we can 'obey more', we ought to also.


By 'obeying more', we 'love Him more' and vice versa.


Also, by having 'right doctrine' faith increases simply because faith is 'only' built upon Christ's Words and not our false man-made opinions as the Verse below implies:


"So faith comes from hearing, and hearing by the word of Christ" (Romans 10:17, NASB)


This means that if we obey some things according to New Testament Verses (that's a measure of faith in us) and the 'false man made teachings which we also hold on to' (with NO New Testament Verses or a wrong interpretation of it) would be counted as our errors.


Thus let us be wise to learn right doctrine from His Written Word 'only' (Sola Scriptura) to have an increase of faith based on the Blessed Words of Christ.


Indeed, let's do more of 'what He Commanded' in Holy New Testament Scripture in order to avoid hurting Him like this:


"Why do you call Me, 'Lord, Lord,' and do not do what I say?" - Lord Jesus Christ (Luke 6:46, NASB)




Let us strive to obey (even if we may fail many times) His New Testament Commands and Preach according to the Written Verses instead of against it as it was both Taught and Practiced by the Earliest New Testament Church as it recorded in all these Bible Verses to 'achieve these Will of God' for us:


"for God is not a God of confusion but of peace, as in all the churches of the saints." (1 Corinthians 14:33, NASB)


"For this reason I have sent to you Timothy, who is my beloved and faithful child in the Lord, and he will remind you of my ways which are in Christ, just as I teach everywhere in every church." (1 Corinthians 4:17, NASB)


"Be imitators of me, just as I also am of Christ. Now I praise you because you remember me in everything and hold firmly to the traditions, just as I delivered them to you." (1 Corinthians 11:1 - 2, NASB)


"Now we command you, brethren, in the name of our Lord Jesus Christ, that you keep away from every brother who leads an unruly life and not according to the tradition which you received from us. For you yourselves know how you ought to follow our example, because we did not act in an undisciplined manner among you,


If anyone does not obey our instruction in this letter, take special note of that person and do not associate with him, so that he will be put to shame. Yet do not regard him as an enemy, but admonish him as a brother." (2 Thessalonians 3:6 - 7, 14 - 15, NASB)


"Now I urge you, brethren, keep your eye on those who cause dissensions and hindrances contrary to the teaching which you learned, and turn away from them." (Romans 16:17, NASB)


"As I besought thee to abide still at Ephesus, when I went into Macedonia, that thou mightest charge some that they teach no other doctrine," (1 Timothy 1:3, KJV)


"But all things must be done properly and in an orderly manner." (1 Corinthians 14:40, NASB)


The 'Narrow Path to Life' certainly includes doing 'all things' in an orderly manner according to His New Testament Commands which apostle Paul, the apostle to the Gentiles demonstrated as we are to imitate him as Gentiles too as by doing so we will certainly be fulfilling the 'Will of God' to avoid "Lawlessness" in those aspects by speaking the SAME thing (with regards to Doctrine as well) as it is COMMANDED in Verse below to ALL CHURCHES (1 Corinthians 7:17, 1 Corinthians 7:19, 1 Corinthians 14:33, 1 Corinthians 11:16):


"Now I beseech you, brethren, by the Name of our Lord Jesus Christ, that ye all speak the SAME thing, and that there be NO DIVISIONS among you; but that ye be perfectly joined together in the SAME MIND and in the SAME JUDGMENT." (1 Corinthians 1:10, KJV)


Here is the last passage prior with Verses attached to it:


The 'Narrow Path to Life' (Matthew 7:13) certainly includes doing 'all things' in an orderly manner (1 Corinthians 14:40) according to His New Testament Commands (1 Corinthians 14:37, 2 Peter 3:2, Acts 1:2) which apostle Paul, the apostle to the Gentiles (Romans 11:13, Romans 1:5) demonstrated as we are to imitate him as Gentiles too (1 Corinthians 11:1 - 2) as by doing so we will certainly be fulfilling the 'Will of God' to avoid "Lawlessness" (Matthew 7:20 - 23) in those aspects by speaking the SAME thing (with regards to Doctrine as well) as it is COMMANDED in [aforementioned] Verse [above, 1 Corinthians 1:10] to ALL CHURCHES (1 Corinthians 7:17, 1 Corinthians 7:19, 1 Corinthians 14:33, 1 Corinthians 11:16).






P/S: Divisions in Christianity




Please remember that any Christian who does NOT Speak the 'SAME thing' as what 'apostle Paul wrote in New Testament Verses' is responsible for either creating a DIVISION in the Body of Christ or in Participating in it as 1 Corinthians 1:10 implies, right?


So, do we belong to the few who follow New Testament Verses or to those 'who follow some Verses while ignoring the rest'?


Let us strive to follow 'as many Verses as possible' (especially the Verses which 'other Christians consider not so important) to walk according to His Rules to win a Prize:


"Also if anyone competes as an athlete, he does not win the prize unless he competes according to the rules." (2 Timothy 2:5, NASB)


All His Verses (Word) are important and I see that if we obey 'more Verses' in PREACHING and ACTION (please note that BOTH are mentioned distinctly in Verse below), we gain 'greater' rewards as it is implied in this infamous Verse:


"Whoever then shall BREAK one of the least of these commandments and shall TEACH OTHERS the same, he will be called LEAST in the kingdom of the heavens; but whoever shall keep and shall teach them, he will be called great in the kingdom of the heavens." - Lord Jesus Christ (Matthew 5:19, BLB)


'If it is Written in a New Testament Verse, it is Important and the Correct Way of Understanding an Old Testament Verse is seeing it Interpreted in New Testament Verses by the Apostles themselves as it is Commanded by Lord Jesus Christ Himself' - Anonymous


Yes to fulfill the Great Commission Correctly, we should NOT have any 'omissions' to 'what our Blessed Saviour COMMANDED to His APOSTLES' which are to obeyed till the END of this New Testament AGE as it is implied in the Majestic Verse below:


"teaching them to observe all that I commanded you; and lo, I am with you always, even to the end of the age." - Lord Jesus Christ (Matthew 28:20, NASB)


'No one ever went to Hell by preaching these same New Testament Verses as apostle Paul Wrote, right? So why take the risk by teaching otherwise?' - Unknown






Similar Posts