Aion – Aionion : Literal One Translation
This is an important topic ( literal one translation ) since by ignoring it, Christians have been mislead to believe that there is no more hope for the lost after this and that only an eternal hell awaits them (the lost) with no possibility of redemption. Everlasting punishment and annihilation also has created a very serious wrong impression about who really our God and Saviour is, The Great Saviour.
Let it be said that this is not a ‘cult’ teaching (Christ centered-universalism a.k.a. true gospel) for it was the belief amongst the mainstream (majority Christians) for up to almost the first five hundred years. Something is usually true only in the beginning and later it gets perverted by unlearned (untaught) and unstable men as even apostle Peter testifies at the end of his epistle:
“ and consider that the longsuffering of our Lord is salvation – as also our beloved brother Paul, according to the wisdom given to him, has written to you,
As also in all his epistles, speaking in them of these things, in which are some things hard to understand, which untaught and unstable people twist to their own destruction, as they do also the rest of the Scriptures.
You therefore, beloved, since you know this beforehand, beware lest you also fall from your own steadfastness, being led away with the error of the wicked;
But grow in the grace and knowledge of our Lord and Saviour Jesus Christ. To Him be the glory both now and to the day of the age. Amen.” (2 Peter 3:15 – 18)
Note that apostle Peter was very humble in the sense because he acknowledged that apostle Paul had been given a deeper wisdom by God. Apostle Peter never argued or spoke to Christ saying : “ I walked with You, Lord Jesus, and how come You reveal to Paul who was never with You when You were on the earth.
Furthermore, I am the ‘head apostle’ and how come You reveal to Paul and not to me since am I not the authority of doctrine and the church? Isn’t it unfair? ”. I’m not saying that Peter felt this way but rather just am explaining what kind of thoughts may have come to me if I was in Peter’s shoes. This in no way undermines Peter or Paul for it is not a comparison (for there are no competitions in Christianity) but rather each one (according to the gifts given to him), may edify one another bringing about the Unity in the Body of Christ.
Some may say that much learning has driven me mad; I would choose to say that it is true for almost 10 over years I was mad, mislead but not anymore. By His grace, now I see, dimly. Now is probably the only time in my life that I’ve begun to be and am sane.
Can a madman write all these? As even apostle Paul received this charge against him by Festus:
“ Now as he (Paul) thus made his defense, Festus said with a loud voice, “Paul, you are beside yourself! Much learning is driving you mad!”
But he (Paul) said, “I am not mad, most noble Festus, but speak the words of truth and reason.”” (Acts 26:24 – 25)
Note that Paul implies that the Truth he defends is with ‘reason’ (logical thinking in accordance to the Word of God). Most Christians are fed the errorness lie that ‘God’s Word is not logical.’ I would reply to such an insult to God thus: ‘You make God illogical, you will become illogical.’ This I speak in the flesh.
How do we know who is right? Hear both points of view, pray, check it out for yourselves with more research and decide for yourself.
A little background: The Old Testament (OT) was written in Hebrew and a little Aramaic. The New Testament (NT) was originally written in Greek.
The Hebrew word almost always translated as ‘eternal’ or ‘everlasting’ in the OT is ‘olam’ and according to the earliest Greek translation of the OT (called the Septuagint) is equivalent to the root word in Greek is ‘aion or eon’ and its derivations (both noun and adjectives), transliterated as ‘aionas, aionon etc’.
Septuagint (meaning seventy) was translated by outside scholarship into Greek and was done by almost 70 scholars (some may argue that it may have been 69).
You don’t have to be a ‘Hebrew or Greek scholar’ just to study a couple of words and phrases to determine its meaning. This answers the query that one has no need to be a Greek scholar or be an authority in Greek to understand these things. Three techniques are often used by linguists to determine meaning of a word: etymology (how the word was derived), lexicography (lexicon-dictionary written by scholars in that language called also as lexicographer) and usage (how the word was applied and used at that point of time).
All scholars (from all camp) would agree that the best (of the three) method to determine the meaning of a word is ‘usage’.
‘Literal’ Bible translations (using correct tenses and emphasizing literal meaning to a word rather that ‘what the scholar thinks it means’) are also available. A few good ones (not perfect) but very accurate are such as: Young’s literal Translation (YLT), Jonathan Mitchell’s translation and also Rotherham’s Emphasized Bible by Joseph Bryant Rotherham; all scholars in their own right. These bibles correctly employ the words age, ages, day, time, times, etc. according to their singular-plural and also maintain the phrases such as ‘day of age’, ‘age of age’, ‘age of ages’, ‘ages of ages’…
It would be interesting to note that if I’m not mistaken, even John Kohlenberger III (the infamous authority in these languages for the mainstream who amongst his works is the NIV strongest concordance – it’s kind of like he did what James Strong did for the KJV) also writes a forward for the Rotherham’s Emphasized Bible by Joseph Bryant Rotherham. This indicates even they (of the current mainstream) acknowledge these works to be accurate in ‘literal meaning.’
‘Transliterated’ means trying to write the pronunciation of a Greek word not using Greek alphabets but rather using say, roman alphabets.
For the Greek words, it suffices to just consider just three things to determine its meaning quite accurately: whether it is a Noun, Adjective and Singular (or Plural). You can easily ask and check with your nearest Greek expert in a Bible school of your locality whether or not these words are thus described. Alternately, you can also buy books (from both points of views – age(s) versus eternal), buy interllinears (Greek bibles with English parallel with it) and also read up on the internet (don’t worry – even those who try to scare you by saying ‘don’t believe the internet – it’s all lies’ by themselves, not only use the internet for themselves but also have their church websites, blogs and teachings posted there).
You read, pray and then decide for yourselves what is right.
For an example, let us consider a classic fallacy. Even they (champions of free-will, often stating that the reason hell is eternal is that because God won’t be able to influence the creature’s will to submit to Him causing an eternity of punishment) also contradict themselves say, in interpreting the classic ‘Every knee shall bow and confess that Jesus is Lord’ (Philippians 2:9-11). According to them, such a confession from those disobedient ones (in an eternal hell) is ‘forced’.
For if it was a willing confession on the creature’s part, amen, salvation has come for it being a ‘true’ confession and it cannot be done without the Holy Spirit (1 Corinthians 12:3). The presence of the Holy Spirit itself signifies either the beginning of Salvation for that creature or that it (salvation) has already been obtained. Hence they conclude that it must be a ‘forced’ confession but this statement in itself contradicts their hypothesis about ‘God’ that He cannot and won’t be able to influence the creature’s will to submit to Him (in other words He is powerless) and/or that a creature can resist His will eternally (the creature is able to do an all-powerful rebellion against God for all eternity using its free-will).
In simple words, they say that God will never force anyone to submit to Him because He respects their free-will but there in Philippians 2:9-11, we find that their ‘concept of God’ forcing those enemies (included in every knee) to make a forced submissive act (confessing that Jesus is Lord) and this supposedly brings ‘glory’ to the Father. This logic (reason) they can accept as ‘divine wisdom’ but the true universalistic explanation they consider it demonic since for them the devil can trick (by using arguments that highly exalt God logically) with reason.
Scripture testifies the opposite – all made subject to Him
(1 Corinthians 15:25 & 1 Corinthians 15:28) not by ‘force’ but by love exhibited through reconciliation (Psalm 66:3, 2 Corinthians 5:19 & Colossians 1:20 – This is the Key to unlock the Mystery of Christ). For reconciliation is a product of Love, not force. This is the purpose of the ages as we shall shortly see.
Let’s go back to the word aion/aionon. I do not agree to even some of the universalists who also apply a duality in explaining the meaning of that Greek word.
For an example, let us consider a pair of classic scriptures (Matthew 25:46, and 1 Timothy 6:16) and I will illustrate all three views of interpretation of it (the ‘eternal’ view, the ‘some dualist universalist view’ and ‘the one universalist view’) separately:
First view : Eternal Hell view
[Mt 25:46]:
“Then they will go away to eternal punishment, but the righteous to eternal life.”
The Greek words “kolasin aiOnion” and “zOEn aiOnion ” are rendered “eternal punishment” and “eternal life”
But “aiOnion” in both case is falsely claimed to mean ‘eonian’ = for an eon, an age. Punishment and life not eternal but limited to an age.
So if all of the above false claims were true, then the following must be considered true and God is merely mortal not eternal, he is just a god with a limited finite existence:
[Heb 9:12]:
“Nor by the blood of goats and calves, but by His own blood, entered once for all into the holies, having obtained eternal…..redemption for us.”
………………………………………………………………”aionian”
Would God redeem us for just a few ages? (Then what?)
“aionian” here must mean “eternal” to make sense because Christ entered, (sacrificed Himself), once for all and for all time! Why would His sacrifice be for anything less than for eternity – all time? Is He not God?
[Compare 1 Ti 6:16]:
“Who [God] only hath immortality dwelling in the
……………………………….”athanasia”
light which no man can approach unto; Whom no man hath seen, nor can see; to Whom be honour and power everlasting. Amen.
“aionion ”
In order for this passage to make sense and be admissible as the word of God the words “athanasia”, and “aionin” must not contradict one another in this passage so as to provide a nonsensical meaning. “Athanasia” is correctly translated even by the New World translators and the Concordant Bible translators as “immortality” which implies an everlasting existence. Therefore the word “aionion” which applies to God’s honour and power must be translated “everlasting” in order to make any sense. Why would His power be only limited for an age when His essence is immortal, hence everlasting? Is God immortal and everlasting but He loses His power and honour, they are only temporary?? If so, the context does not support this contradiction at all!
“Who God only hath immortality………to Whom be ……honour and power for an age – or for everlasting???”
If God is immortal then His honour and power is likewise immortal – everlasting.
*Note : I actually cut and paste this argument from a traditional eternal hell scholar’s view. I did not add or edit anything. It is as you see… lest I be falsely accused of ‘changing words here and there’ to suit my claim.
I believe it’s from this respected website in the current mainstream:
http://www.biblestudymanuals.net/aionion.htm
Second view : Dualist universalist view
[Matthew 25:46]
A common objection is that (even Augustine of Hippo argued similarly):
“Then eternal life is not endless, for the same Greek adjective qualifies life and punishment.”
This does not follow, for the word is used in Greek in different senses in the same sentence; as Hab. iii:6 (Habakkuk 3:6). “And the everlasting mountains were scattered –his ways are everlasting.” Suppose we apply the popular argument here. The mountains and God must be of equal duration, for the same word is applied to both. Both are temporal or both are endless. But the mountains are expressly stated to be temporal –they “were scattered,” –therefore God is not eternal. Or God is eternal and therefore the mountains must be. But they cannot be, for they were scattered. The argument does not hold water. The aiónion mountains are all to be destroyed. Hence, the word may denote both limited and unlimited duration in the same passage, the different meanings to be determined by the subject treated.
[1 Timothy 6:16]
1 Tim. vi:16 [1 Timothy 6:16], “Who only hath immortality (athanasian).”
Now these words are applied to God and the soul’s happiness. They are words that in the Bible are never applied to punishment, or to anything perishable. They would have been affixed to punishment had the Bible intended to teach endless punishment. And certainly they show the error of those who declare that the indefinite word aiónion is all the word, or the strongest word in the Bible declarative of the endlessness of the life beyond the grave. A little more study of the subject would prevent such reckless statements and would show that the happy, endless life does not depend at all on the pet word of the partialist critics.
*Note that it may be added here that these universalists may argue the interpretation in two ways for the second part of the verse in [1 Timothy 6:16]:
First group: ‘everlasting (aionion) power’ because they would argue that the subject to which it is applied to is God, and therefore the power is ‘everlasting’ not because of the adjective that describes it (aionon) in itself means everlasting (because in its literal meaning is ‘age’) but rather due to the ‘fact’ in ‘Greek/Hebrew’ language that the meaning can be taken from the ‘subject’ to which it is applied. Since God is immortal, hence His power is eternal.
Second group: ‘age-during power’ because this does not mean that His power lasts only for an age but just highlights it – just like God of Israel does not mean He is not God of all. Also, consider the adjective ‘great’. Now the phrase ‘a great man’ and ‘a great God’ uses the same adjective namely, ‘great’. But in the former (when applied to man) it is certainly ‘limited greatness’ and not the same as the ‘great’ when it is applied to God in which case the ‘greatness is unlimited (eternal or infinite)’. Note that the literal meaning of great is not infinite.
Third view: One universalist view
I would quote Lee Salisbury’s writing on this as I almost 100% agree with his way of interpreting it (The full tract of ‘Eternity explained’ can be found at www.tentmaker.org):
Aeonios Life—Aeonios Punishment
The most common objection arises with the realization that if aeonios life for the righteous will one day be completed, then aeonios punishment for the unregenerate will also one day be completed. Most prominent support for the traditional doctrine of eternal punishment is in Matthew 25:46 where aeonios punishment is contrasted to aeonios life. “Then they will go away to eternal (aeonios) punishment, but the righteous to eternal(aeonios) life.” It is argued that the latter is supposed to mean endless life, hence the former supposedly means endless punishment. If the punishment is limited, the life must also be limited, the duration of each being expressed by the same word. Though the reasoning appears logical, it is based upon the unfortunate mistranslation of the word “aeonios.”
Even if the premises for eternal punishment in Matt.25:46 were true, it is clear from Rom.16:25-26, that “aeonios” does not mean “eternal.” Here again “aeonios” occurs twice, “According to the revelation of the mystery hidden for long ages past (aeonios), but now revealed and made known through the prophetic writings by the command of the eternal (aeonis) God.” “Aeonios” cannot mean “eternal” when it speaks of the gospel’s being kept secret “since the world began,” (KJV), “for long ages past” (NIV). If “aeonios” meant “eternal” (perpetual), then the gospel would still be a secret, for there would be no succession of ages before which it was a secret nor after which it could be revealed. The same truth is revealed in Titus 1:2. “In hope of eternal (aeonios) life, which God, that cannot lie, promised before the world began (before times aeonios).” Though God is certainly eternal, the second use of “aeonios” in Rom.16:26, refers to Him as the God of the ages, just as he is the God of Israel or the God of Abraham.
Uniformity Eliminates Confusion
The fact is “aeonios” wherever it is used in the New Testament has one uniform meaning. When applied to God, He is the aeonis God, or the God of the ages, i.e., the Being who through aeons of time is working out His wonderful plan. The word “aeonios” has the force of belonging to, or in connection with the ages; for example, “aeonios life,” “aeonios salvation,” “aeonios redemption,” “aeonios inheritance,” “aeonios fire,” and “aeonios punishment” (see John 3:16; Heb.5:9; 9:12,15; Jude 7; Matt.25:46). To suggest that “aeonios” means “endless times” or “endless ages,” is not only a contradiction of terms, but nonsensical and confusing. It is equivalent to suggesting an “infinite finite,” a “limitless limit,” a “something nothing” or a “full vacuum.” An age is a span of time, a period of existence. Though seemingly immeasurable to man, nevertheless it is of limited duration.
God’s Punishments Have Purpose
In examining “aeonios” as it is applied to punishment, we see that this too pertains to a period of time or age in which God is working out His purposes. The Greek word translated “punishment” is “”kolasis,” which means “to curtail, retrain, chastise, or prune.” Aeonios chastisement would then be a sentence of chastisement with both a beginning and an end, for the purpose of correction. The fact that the sentence of chastisement has an end does not in any way take away from its severity (Rom.11:22). God has promised judgment to the Gentiles until He sends forth judgment unto victory-Matt.12:18-20. For when God’s judgments are in the earth, the inhabitants of the world will learn righteousness-Isa.26:9. Never are God’s chastisements meaningless, as they would be if aeonios punishment were forever. Even those who have not benefited from His judgments while living on this earth, will one day experience His judgments, for “it is appointed unto men once to die, but after this the judgment” Heb.9:27. The marvelous truth of the gospel is that God’s chastisements are redemptive. Ultimately all the ends of the earth shall know God, for He has sworn by Himself, and the word has gone out of His mouth in righteousness and shall not return void, that unto Him every knee shall bow and every tongue shall swear-Isa.45:22-23; Phil.2:10-11.
If “Aeonios” Meant “Eternal”
Furthermore supposing “aeon” and its adjectival form “aeonios” meant “eternal,” consider how illogical the Holy Spirit would appear saying, This grace was given us in Christ Jesus before the beginning of eternity (aeonios)” (2Tim.1:9) “which God, who does not lie promised before the beginning of eternity (aeonios)” (Tit.1:2); “according to the revelation of the mystery hidden for eternity (aeonios) past” (Rom.16:25); who gave Himself for our sins to rescue us from the present evil eternity (aeon)” (Gal.1:4); “the harvest is the end of this eternity (aeon)” (Matt.13:39); “who have tasted the goodness of the word of God and the powers of the coming eternity (aeon)” Heb.6:5. Suffice it to say that there have been “aeons” in the past, there is the present “aeon,” and there are “aeons” to come. These all combined make up TIME, encompassing the whole progressive plan and program of God for the development of His creation.
Only “Aidios” Means “Eternal”
The fact is the New Testament has only one word which can truthfully be translated “eternal.” This is the Greek word “aidios” which is used only twice. Once it describes the Godhead. “For since the creation of the world God’s invisible qualities—His eternal (aidios) power and divine nature—have been clearly seen” Rom.1:20. The second time it describes the chains which hold rebellious angels until their day of judgment, “these he has kept in darkness; bound with everlasting (aidios) chains for judgment on the great day” Jude 6. These timeless, unchangeable chains will always be a symbol of the severity of God’s corrective measures. Apart from these two verses, there is no place in scripture where a word meaning eternal is to be found.
Conclusion
Eternity and its synonyms are grevious mistranslations of the Hebrew and Greek words. Both the Old and the New Testament misuses indicate a biased mind-set which hides God’s true nature and purpose. The uniform translation of “aeon” and its adjective from “aeonios” solves many inconsistencies in scripture study. Jesus came to give aeonios life, a quality of relationship with the Father through Himself, a life that is only the earnest of much more to come. The most shameful consequences of this error are the grotesque images which Christianity projects of God, who is really so loving, wise and powerful. God’s love nature corresponds with His purpose which required Jesus to hang on a cross, and about which Jesus said, “And I if I be lifted up from the earth, will draw all men unto me” Jn.12:32. His wisdom and majesty dominate the ages through which mankind is drawn toward God’s goal of creating man in His own image, “that God may be all in all” 1Cor.15:28.
Here are some of my personal takes on this discussion to ‘enrich it’.
For the second group (dualist universalist view):
The translation is right but their explanation almost.
The problem with their argument is the analogy with the adjective ‘great’. The ‘aionion’ (used here in 1 Timothy 6:16 is the exact same spelling as the one used in Matthew 25:46) and is an adjective and carries a singular meaning.
Note that in the analogy, the adjective ‘great’ in the English language does not have a singular nor a plural feel. There is no such thing when great is used as an adjective, we can say, ‘greats God’. But as a noun (name, place or thing) the same word ‘great’ has a plural for we can say ‘the greats of soccer …’ ( meaning the many soccer players that were great … ). Thus we must be careful when we draw analogies especially in the study of language.
For the second group (dualist universalist view) and also the eternal hell view, are you sure you got the right arguments? Here’s mine:
Strictly speaking, even though the two occurrences of the same Greek word (aionion) in both Matthew 25:46 and 1 Timothy 6:16 have exactly the same spelling, the ‘feel is different’. For in the former (Matthew 25:46), it is ‘Adjective – Accusative – Singular – Feminine’ while on the latter (1 Timothy 6:16) it is ‘Adjective – Nominative – Singular – Neuter’. It doesn’t change the meaning of the two words simply because they are of the same spelling but only the ‘feel’ changes. The meaning is implied by the two invariants present (adjective – singular) while the ‘feel’ is implied by the two variables (Accusative/Nominative – Feminine/Neuter). You don’t have to take my word for it and you can ask any local ‘Greek expert’ nearby if this is so. Ask them, “Can two words of the same spelling mean differently in Greek if they are not a homograph*? Is it true that the meaning is the same but the ‘feel’ is different?” (Remember, all liars will have their part in the lake of fire; so, do answer honestly
(yes or no) for even if you try to be cunning by making up other ‘grammar rules- that most likely weren’t there or not known to the Greek writers back then’, you may find yourself to be a liar).
*Homograph : Two words with the same spelling but different meanings entirely. E.g., ’saw’; ‘ I saw a cat’ and ‘The saw can cut’.
If you try to be a ‘smart alec’ by answering ‘don’t know’ (just like the religious teachers – chief priests, scribes and elders (Luke 20:7); Watch out! for God is not fooled; If you don’t know, then how come you call yourself an ‘expert’ in Greek? If you actually know the honest answer and try to be ‘safe’ by saying, ‘I don’t know’, again I repeat, God is not mocked; You may actually hear the same words used on you ( I never knew you ). Remember, if you like to say ‘don’t know, don’t know for everything but then sit in the place of authority actually knowing it’, then you may actually hear your own echo on judgement day (I never knew you) for He renders each one according to his works (deeds). If you like to say that phrase (don’t know), you may actually hear it back applied to you. (Do you still want to be a teacher? And call yourselves an expert, and really believe some of the ‘grammar excuses’ to be true?- I’ll come to that shortly; if God permits). In Malay, the warning may be said as follows:
‘Hati – hati, jangan cakap ‘tak tahu’, ‘tak tahu’ and akhirnya dengar balasan Tuhan kepada anda, ”Baginda pun tak tahu anda”.’
Note also that we must also be careful of the so called ‘grammar rule’ arguments often given by the ‘eternal hell view adherents’. These rules often self-contradict and they will come up with a ‘new rule’ just to fit the case so that the exact same word in consideration can completely mean ‘something else’ entirely in two passages that they may occur in. These are cunningly devised to ‘trick you’.
I’ll give you a brief example:
Consider the pair of verses 1 Corinthians 10:11 and Phillipians 4:20 (both written by the same person, apostle Paul under the Holy Spirit) which have the Greek word aionon with not only the same spelling (implying a same meaning) but also the same ‘feel’ namely, in this case, both are ‘Noun – Genitive – Plural – Masculine’.
These exactly same words (aionon – in all sense) were translated thus :
(i) In 1 Corinthians 10:11, it’s translated as: ages, world or worlds.
(ii) In Philippians 4:20, it’s translated as: ever. (not forever or even for ever; You should ask them why this is such for I didn’t do it and neither do I approve it to be a correct translation).
The best excuse (or grammar rule) they will use to trick you is ‘context’; It is like a magic word (context) because when uttered, you’ll be disillusioned (spellbound) and they can say ‘whatever they want’ and ‘you will end up believing it’. Again I repeat, how can two exactly same words in Greek (aionon) in this case equal in all sense
(spelling, feel, and even the same author – apostle Paul) be translated differently: The first time as (ages, world, worlds) in
1 Corinthians 10:11 while the second time as (ever) in Philippians 4:20? Context(?). Maybe you need ‘contacts’. Just kidding. This is a horrible duality that has skewed the true meaning of the gospel of Jesus Christ. Are you confident (with your experts in Greek/Hebrew etc. that they are right in applying such obvious ‘duality’ in their translation)? Remember, it may be that if they ‘lied’ then you too ‘lied’ by preaching a ‘lie’ about our blessed Lord Jesus. ‘Not knowing’ is not a good excuse (especially when you’re told and presented with the evidence like this) even as the following scripture testifies:
“In flaming fire taking vengeance on those who do not know God, and on those who do not obey the gospel of our Lord Jesus Christ”
(2 Thessalonians 1:8)
[Does the phrase ‘do not know God’ (apply to those who have a wrong concept of Him – whom the Lord may declare ‘I never knew you’) while the phrase ‘do not obey the gospel’ (apply to those who were told the truth but still refuse to repent and continued in their old ways – having a wrong concept of Him)? You decide.]
Now you see why I also reject this language rule (also commonly used by universalists) for it causes confusion and is a duality:
The ‘fact’ (as they claim) in ‘Greek/Hebrew’ language, the meaning can be taken from the ‘subject’ to which it is applied. Since God is immortal, hence His power is eternal; because according to their ‘language or grammar rule’, aionon here can imply the meaning ‘eternal’ even though its literal meaning here is ages.
They get this idea from philosophers such as Thomas De Quincey, one of the most accurate students of language, and profoundest reasoners and thinkers among English scholars; as Dr John Wesley Hanson records this philosophy in Quincey’s words:
“The exact amount of the duration expressed by an aión depends altogether upon the particular subject which yields the aión. It is, as I have said, a radix, and like an algebraic square-root or cube-root, though governed by the most rigorous laws of limitation, it must vary in obedience to the nature of the particular subject whose radix it forms.”
Notice that Quincey draws an analogy based on some mathematical law. Remember, we must be careful when we do an analogy? In fact an analogy cannot be used to imply a meaning but rather just be used to explain in parallel a similar ‘line of logic’. I think I know a little mathematics too.
Do I sound too ‘judgmental’? Can you testify in truth that not even once, even if not in your words, but in your thoughts, you may have ‘deemed me a heretic or a false teacher?’
I’ve to put it so clearly and a little harsh so that you will think twice before accusing me that I’m in error. Even if I’m in error, it is definitely not in the big picture, which is Christ saves the world.
Do you know that if you put in the ‘true’ literal meaning for that Greek word (aionon), namely, ‘ages’ in this case, ‘all’ the way, you would find ‘no contradiction’. The Bible now will reveal a more literal and real truth that was hidden to you (and me too at one point of time). Alas! Therein is the secret: no duality (even when translating):
Let us illustrate with an example: The aionion that occurs in both
1 Corinthians 10:11, and Philippians 4:20 may be translated either based on the ‘duality’ or the ‘oneness’ concept below.
Duality: The word aionon (noun-plural; with exactly the same spelling, feel and authorship) may mean ‘ages’,’world’,’worlds’ or ‘ever’ in accordance to ‘context’.
Oneness: The word aionon (noun-plural) means ‘ages’ everywhere it occurs in the Bible.
A brief note: To answer the ‘objection’ made by the ‘eternal hell view’ with regards to the aionion (adjective-singular and with the same spelling) which occurs in both (Matthew 25:46 & 1 Timothy 6:16). Their best argument to defend their ‘duality principle in translation’ is that if the literal meaning (of the Greek word aionion) is true, then ‘The life described by our Lord is to the age only (Matthew 25:46) – after which we die ah?; and thus His power also
last’s only to the age (1 Timothy 6:16) – after which God is powerless ah?’.
The answer is simple (consider the two points below):
1. The literal meaning (Oneness translation) of the two passages of scripture and their respective explanations are as follows:
(i) [Matthew 25:46];
“And the wicked shall go into age-during punishment while the righteous shall go into age-during life.” (Matthew 25:46)
In the coming age (as it is named ‘men’s correction age’ in this book), the righteous go into a period of life (as their just reward for believing ‘first’) while the rest (wicked) go into a time of punishment (kolasin – as their just reward for their disobedience and sin) whose duration lasts for an age only (as it is named ‘men’s correction age’ in this book). Note that they are not saved ‘by hell’ but ‘by Lord Jesus’.
Their punishment in hell is just (to show that this is what they deserve based on their sins – and also to be ‘fair’ to us, Christians who trusted in Him first; for it would be unfair (or partiality with God) if they are just ‘simply saved’ with or without repentance (change of freewill to align itself and submit to God), punishment or belief {in Jesus}). Nevertheless Lord Jesus’ redemption work on the cross implies that these punishments cannot be ‘eternal or endless’ because ‘He doesn’t deal with us according to our sins’ – the outworking of His Mercy and grace – He chooses to forgive because He is Love (Agape) that never fails (once loves, always loves) – It is not unjust in the part of God when He does this simply because He Has that right (because He paid for all the sin of the whole world {all} – and it is being testified (in its due times, now!) – and most importantly, this is what He (God) wants (desires, intents) – That is, His Will is to ‘save the world’, ‘not desire the death of even the wicked’, ‘that none should be lost (remain in death) forever’, ‘that Lord Jesus should lose nothing of the ‘all things’ given to Him’;
to restore all things – gather all things to reconcile them – and thus fill all things so that God will be ‘all in all’! .
Just in case someone feels that God’s Will described in the earlier passage has no Scriptural justification, here it is again (this time with the scriptural address written beside it):
God’s Will is to:
– ‘save the world’, [John 1:29, John 3:17, 1 John 2:2]
– ‘not desire the death of even the wicked’, [Ezekiel 18:23,32]
– ‘that none should be lost (remain in death forever) till not found or be brought back from the dead’, [Luke 15:4-5; Luke 15:8-9; Luke 15:24; Note that the sheep, coin and son was not lost forever (never found) but He searches and waits (timing) till (until) He finds them all; All the parable of the ‘lost’ ends with the ‘lost’ being found and received back even from a death state. It can be applied to this life or even after death for He doesn’t change: He is a Saviour that will not stop till He saves all for this is His purpose and He is in one mind and who can stop Him?)
– ‘that Lord Jesus should lose nothing of the ‘all things’ given to Him’,
[John 3:35, John 6:37 – 39]
– to restore all things [Acts 3:20-21]
– gather all things to reconcile them
[Ephesians 1:10, Colossians 1:20]
– and thus fill all things [Ephesians 1:23]
– so that God will be ‘all in all’ [1 Corinthians 15:28] .
Ask the eternal hell scholars to try explain the universalistic verses
above. You will be astounded by how even the best Greek professor
or hermeneutics* professor struggle to find words and end up babbling meanings that you yourself can clearly see does not seem
to add up to the literal meaning stated in the Holy Scriptures above.
So much for scholarship and professorship.
*hermeneutics = interpretation; especially of Scripture.
(ii) [1 Timothy 6:16];
“who alone has immortality, dwelling in an unapproachable light, whom no man has seen or can see, to whom be honour and power age-during. Amen.” (1 Timothy 6:16)
Oneness – Literal meaning:
Here we see that Paul is declaring that God is immortal and is highlighting His honour and power to the end of this current age because the current age (called the Gospel age in this book – Revelation 14:6) is in force until the prophecies of the book of Revelation is fulfilled till Judgment Day. After judgment day, the next age (called men’s correction age in this book) begins. That is what the passage above really and literally means in Greek.
Further Objection by ‘dualist meaning scholars’:
Some would still argue that it sounds funny for Paul to describe God’s power (might or even dominion) for a particular age. Why not Paul just declare it eternally? This must mean that the age (aionion) here must therefore by rules of language or grammar available to Greek, mean eternal in this instance. Hence we must reject the literal meaning of scripture here when looked upon the totality of context of scripture elsewhere.
Would you declare God’s power as age-during or eternal?. Rest assured, it can’t be that all our scholars in Greek are wrong in this translation. Those guys who claim literal meaning translation have not studied Greek fully and they are not an authority in Greek at all.
All of us are wrong and those select few who are nothing are right ah? Remember, we are the authority in doctrine that are ordained by God. In fact, our scholars are good tithers, have good prayer lives and are sensitive to the leading of the Spirit. Tell me, how can we be wrong?
Sounds good eh? Yeah, and they will say that this is the explanation that they feel right in their spirit as well.
My Reply to the ‘further objection’
Are you sure your case is water – tight?
So the all scriptures in the Bible talking about salvation of the world to the reconciliation of all things are all wrong?
1. To start off, they are right in one thing though – what I’m going to share below is not going to be right with their spirit not God’s Spirit. And I think I have God’s Spirit living in me too (1 Corinthians 7:40).
2. If your chief protestant reformer – Martin Luther – thought the same way that you claimed we should towards the Catholic Church at that time which was both the authority in doctrine and language (Hebrew/Greek and the unrelated Latin) you wouldn’t even have your denomination today. – (i.e., , it can’t be that all our scholars in Greek are wrong in this translation. Those guys who claim literal meaning translation have not studied Greek fully and they are not an authority in Greek at all. All of us are wrong and those select few who are nothing are right ah? Remember, we are the authority in doctrine that are ordained by God. In fact, our scholars are good tithers, have good prayer lives and are sensitive to the leading of the Spirit. Tell me, how can we all be wrong?).
Don’t get fooled by their earthly logic that even their reformers have contradicted. It may be the case described by the verse below:
“For the time will come when they will not endure sound doctrine, but according to their own desires, because they have itching ears, they will heap up for themselves teachers;
And they will turn their ears away from the truth, and be turned aside to fables.” (2 Timothy 4: 3 – 4)
Note that there are many fables in the world (from other religious thoughts as well) which teach eternal hell. There is no fable in all the world that equates to the one truth which is Jesus, Saviour of the world. The Story of the Son of God, Lord Jesus, God in Flesh, coming to save the world (kosmon) is not only great, but also legendary and even close to being mythical simply because it is too good to be true!
Hence the Wisdom of God: Lord Jesus Himself!
Remember, Paul warned Timothy to keep away from fables even in his first letter to him as the verse below tells us:
“But reject profane and old wives’ fables, and exercise yourself toward godliness” (1 Timothy 4:7)
Note also that in context, just after warning Timothy to keep away from fables, two verses down, Paul states the remarkable universal truth with regards to men that Timothy needs to accept and keep in his mind as an evangelist (2 Timothy 4:5), namely that God saves all men. To quote:
“For this is a faithful saying worthy of all acceptance.
For to this end we labour and suffer reproach, because we trust in the living God, who is the saviour of all men, especially of those who believe. These things command and teach.” (1 Timothy 4:9 – 11)
A sharp eye would also note that before warning about the fables, Paul also assured Timothy early in this same epistle that God will save all men, but not at the same time, he says, but rather at different times (plural in Greek – testified in due times), each in his own order one might say. Here is that beautiful assurance:
“For there is one God and one Mediator between God and men, the Man Christ Jesus,
Who gave Himself a ransom for all, to be testified in due times.”
(1 Timothy 2:5 – 6)
3. Remember, duality is a form of hypocrisy. This is being double minded. Sometimes the exact same word would mean one thing in one place and another meaning in a different place where it is found in the Bible. And the excuse: Law of language/grammar in Greek.
Firstly, God does not approve any dual mindedness (e.g., having two or more minds when translating the same word in Greek into two or more different meanings).
This is what scripture says about a dualist translator’s mind (double minded):
“I hate the double-minded. But I love Your Law” (Psalm 119:113)
Thus neither will I tolerate double-mindedness and will speak against it because I too love God’s Word. God wants Oneness in your minds.
Therefore, change your ways as Scripture exhorts; It’s still not too late:
“Draw near to God and He will draw near to you. Cleanse your hands, you sinners, and purify your hearts, you double – minded.”
(James 4:8)
Dualist translators are double minded (because they don’t even render the same meaning to the same word when it occurs at different places – note the literal one meaning fits just fine all the way).
The verse below tells us that double minded ones are unstable:
“he is a double-minded man, unstable in all his ways.”
(James 1:8)
Remember that at the beginning of this chapter I quoted apostle Peter’s warning (2 Peter 3:16) that unstable people will twist Paul’s writings such as (1 Timothy 6:16) and also the rest of scriptures to their own destruction. See the end of duality?
Dualist translation methods and the excuses (grammar rules, language exceptions, idioms – used against what is literally and even plainly written and meant in Scriptures) are just nonsense and based on the wisdom of this world!
Note that they do not have any Scripture to quote against the principle of Oneness Literal Translation. In fact, just take scripture plainly as what it says. Don’t try to add to the meaning especially using worldly language/grammar rules which are not defined by God nor taught by Him.
He (God) always has One meaning and does not have duality in the words that are inspired in Scripture simply because He is not the author of confusion (because dualism – language rules excuses etc. causes considerable confusion) as Scripture itself testifies:
“For God is not the author of confusion but of peace, as in all the churches of the saints.” (1 Corinthians 14:33)
3. If Paul really wanted to mean ‘eternal power’ here, he could have simply used a phrase that he himself wrote in Romans 1:20:
“For since the creation of the world His invisible attributes are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even His eternal power and Godhead, so that they are without excuse,”
(Romans 1:20)
Note that the word ‘eternal’ here is translated from the true Greek word to mean ‘endless or everlasting’, namely, aidios.
Since Paul wrote both passages [1 Timothy 6:16 & Romans 1:20], and he used different words to describe the power (might) of God, it must be that he is highlighting something deeper just as the literal one meaning tells us.
4. Another explanation is this:
If you considered verses 14 to 16 together, you will actually be able to see the real reason why apostle Paul used literally the word age-during and not eternal to describe God’s power (might, dominion) here. Let us see those verses together:
“that you keep this commandment without spot, blameless until our Lord Jesus Christ’s appearing,
Which He will manifest in His own time, He who is the blessed and only Potentate, the King of kings and Lord of lords,
Who alone has immortality, dwelling in an unapproachable light, whom no man has seen or can see, to whom be honour and power age-during. Amen.” (1 Timothy 6:14 – 16)
Can you see it? I’ve bolded the clue words.
Plainly, Paul is highlighting the power of the immortal Lord Jesus Christ to the end of this current age which is signified by the exhortation he gives to Timothy to walk blameless until Lord Jesus appears (manifests) in His own time. Note that when Christ returns, the current age ends and that is why Paul is highlighting and assuring Timothy that Christ’s honour and power will be there throughout this age as well. In other words, Timothy (and we also) can rest assured knowing that Christ’s honour and power will be there even to the end of this age when the Lord returns whatever the time may be. The literal meaning makes perfect sense right?
As usual, you decide what you want to believe.
We know that Paul wasn’t sure if the Lord may return in Timothy’s lifetime or not. That is why the exhortation to keep the faith is written in such a manner.
Since the Lord hasn’t returned yet, we carry on keeping this commandment, until the Lord comes, when this current age (the Gospel age) will end, judgment day will be held and the next age (men’s correction age) will begin.
Remember, a phD (permanent head damage) in Greek is not necessary to unlock the meaning of scripture. It only helps if we use what we have learnt rightly. The Holy Spirit is the Teacher Who will show us the correct, uniform, peaceful, and one literal meaning of Scripture. Didn’t He promise that,
“But God has chosen the foolish things of the world to put to shame the wise, and God has chosen the weak things of the world to put to shame the things which are mighty.”
(1 Corinthians 1:27)
Why? Few verses down we find an answer:
“that no flesh should glory in His presence.”
(1 Corinthians 1:29)
Because,
“that as it is written, ‘He who glories, let him glory in the LORD.”
(1 Corinthians 1:31 correlates with Jeremiah 9:24)
