Trinity – A Rigorous Scriptural Exegesis

Please consider seriously:

Christ has “No Father” (Hebrews 7:3) —-> but isn’t it written that His Father is God (the Father), e. g. 2 Corinthians 11:31, John 15:1?

The Statement “No Father” is the Absolute Truth regarding Christ while the latter is a relative statement which respect to His Incarnation in the Flesh, —-> which holds true henceforth —-> till ‘every knee bows to Him’ (Philippians 2:9 – 10) and ‘swears [allegiance, Isaiah 45:23] to Him [subjected, 1 Corinthians 15:24 – 28 via reconciliation too, Colossians 1:20]’ and then comes the “End” (1 Corinthians 15:24) —-> when He becomes Equal to the Father again in all sense & ‘God becomes All in All’ (1 Corinthians 15:28).

Please note that God cannot become “All in All” unless the Son to whom All things are Reconciled (2 Corinthians 5:19, Colossians 1:20, Romans 8:20 – 21, 1 Corinthians 15:24 – 27) —-> is “Equal to God the Father in All Fullness again”, Philippians 2:6, Colossians 2:9) —-> and He Fills all things fully with Him (God), Ephesians 4:10 & Ephesians 1:23.

We don’t become God but we become Fully filled with God as it is with all creation too at that time which is believed to be the ends of the Ages when ‘God becomes All in All’ (1 Corinthians 15:28). Can we understand it?

Here’s a Verse speaking of Christ NOT being a Creation at all (His Co-Eternity with the Father Proven as One):

“Without father, without mother, without genealogy, having neither beginning of days nor end of life, but made like the Son of God, he remains a priest perpetually.” (Hebrews 7:3, NASB)

John 10:30 doesn’t say “one in spirit” but only “One” implying Equality in All aspects.

He Left His God-ship due to Humility to Save the World too as explained with “verses” in write up prior too. Hence, the Father is Greater and the Son too chooses to only Know what the Father Wills as His Obedience fulfills All Law.

And regarding Revelation 3:14, Let Scripture interpret Scripture according to elsewhere where the Word ‘Arche'(which connects these passages together) about Christ explain itself instead of ‘human commentaries which ignore Hebrews 7:3’ for example.

In Revelation 3:14, the word “arche” is ‘beginning as a Ruler or pre-eminence’ and NOT as a ‘beginning’ as of created as even John 1:1 & Hebrews 7:3 & Revelation 22:13 too uses this ‘same’ Word. That is, the ‘Beginning’ from which God became the Logos (Word) proving this Fact irrefutably.

Christ is only mentioned as Created in the Flesh (Begotten) or as the Word (Logos, before the Flesh) in the Context of being ‘Made Visible’ (John 1:1, John 1:14, 1 Timothy 3:16) even in Perfect Agreement (Context) to verse below too:

“Who [Lord Jesus Christ] is the image of the invisible God, first-born of all creation,” (Colossians 1:15, YLT)

Yes, that is the “Beginning” speaks of God becoming the “Word” (Logos) and thereafter ‘created’ in the “Flesh” as both the “Son of Man” & “Son of God” in Lord Jesus Christ.

He is NOT created but ‘His Flesh’ was ‘Created’ taking the ‘Form of Creation’ which is referred to in Revelation 3:14 when seen together with Colossians 1:15 and other verses too such as John 1:1, John 1:14, 1 Timothy 3:16 and especially Hebrews 7:3 to understand this accurately to ‘what is Written’.

Indeed, His Flesh is Created since He did NOT exist in the Flesh prior to being Begotten (John 1:14) and existed in the ‘Beginning’ (pre-Existence) as ‘the Word (Logos)’. Please notice that John 1:1 does NOT say that the Word was Spoken but existed as God Equal to the Father (Philippians 2:6). Hebrews 7:3 (speaking of Christ) agrees to the Immortality which ONLY God (the Father) has as 1 Timothy 6:16 means too as the phrases “no Father” or “no genealogy” or “no beginning of days” and “nor end of life” implies Eternal Pre-Existence so clearly in these ‘Factual’ Verses all ‘as it is Written’.

God Created the Creation by “Speaking” as Genesis 1 clearly records which is the “Rhema” (or ‘Spoken Word’) as it is distinguished in Hebrews 11:3 too which is Different from the “Logos” (Word) which can refer to a ‘Statement or Fact or Truth’ (John 4:37) or the Truth of God (John 10:35) where the Latter is the case here since Christ declared that ‘He is the Truth’ (John 14:6, John 17:17).

For more detailed explanation which does not ignore other verses pertaining to this Great Mystery of Godliness, please consider the write up below for edification, thank you for reading:

https://www.anonymouschristian.org/blog/trinity-beyond-all-human-arguments-secrets-revealed/

“and my message and my preaching were not in persuasive words of wisdom, but in demonstration of the Spirit and of power,

so that your faith would not rest on the wisdom of men, but on the power of God.

Yet we do speak wisdom among those who are mature; a wisdom, however, not of this age nor of the rulers of this age, who are passing away;

but we speak God’s wisdom in a mystery, the hidden wisdom which God predestined before the ages to our glory;” – apostle Paul (1 Corinthians 2:4 – 7, NASB)

When we have understood a Glimpse into the Trinity, we may exclaim Jesus Christ as BOTH ‘our Lord and our God’ as apostle Thomas did in verse below [which some anti-trinitarians have falsely claimed that is just a bogus claim —> ask yourself, does God accept bogus claims? Of course NOT! Is Scripture which records this is bogus? How dare they say or claim or imply that ‘as Christians’?]

Fact is, the exclamation below by apostle Thomas is ‘True’ as God does NOT accept False confessions to Him, hence Jesus Christ is BOTH Lord and God! as ‘it is Written’:

“Thomas answered and said to Him, “My Lord and my God!” (John 20:28, NASB)

Let us ‘believe’ the above ‘without seeing’ too to be ‘more blessed’ as the context of the next (consecutive) verse clearly implies (first context):

“Jesus said to him [apostle Thomas], “Because you have seen Me, have you believed? Blessed are they who did not see, and yet believed.” (John 20:29, NASB)

Yes, the ‘rest’ will ‘believe’ when ‘they see’ as apostle Thomas did too. Can we understand it?