Gentile believers are free from the Law of Moses but are still bound by the Law of Christ.
(i) Gentile believers are free from the Law of Moses
“But if you are led by the Spirit, you are not under the Law [of Moses].” (Galatians 5:18, NASB)
“But now we have been released from the Law [of Moses], having died to that by which we were bound, so that we serve in newness of the Spirit and not in oldness of the letter.” (Romans 7:6, NASB)
“For Christ is the end of the Law [of Moses] for righteousness to everyone who believes.” (Romans 10:4, NASB)
(ii) Gentile believers are still bound by the Law of Christ
“to those who are without [the] Law [of Moses], as without Law, though not being without the Law of God but under the Law of Christ, so that I might win those who are without law.” (1 Corinthians 9:21, NASB)
(iii) Law of Christ is ANY Command of the Lord given in Written New Testament Verses through His apostles
“until the day when He [Lord Jesus Christ] was taken up to heaven, after He had by the Holy Spirit given orders to the apostles whom He had chosen.” (Acts 1:2, NASB)
“Or did the word of God originate with you? Or are you the only people it has reached? If anyone thinks they are a prophet or otherwise gifted by the Spirit, let them acknowledge that what I am writing to you is the Lord’s Command. But if anyone ignores this, they will themselves be ignored.” – apostle Paul (1 Corinthians 14:36 – 38, NIV)
“that you should remember the words spoken beforehand by the holy prophets and the commandment of the Lord and Savior spoken by your apostles.” – apostle Peter (2 Peter 3:2, NASB)
Church Order (1 Corinthians 14:33 – 34, 40).
Rule for men (1 Corinthians 11:4, 7, 14).
Rule for women (1 Corinthians 11:5, 6, 13, 15).
Speaking in tongues in a church gathering (1 Corinthians 14:19, 23, 26, 27 – 33).
Different rule for Male vs Female generally (1 Timothy 2:12) vs in church gatherings too (1 Corinthians 14:34).
Different rule for Jewish believers (Acts 21:24) vs Gentile believers (Acts 21:25).
(v) How about Galatians 3:28?
Apostle Paul wrote Galatians 3:28 and each of the quoted Verses above too. For example, please believe in both 1 Timothy 2:12 and Galatians 3:28 and not in misquoting Galatians 3:28.
It’s simple really. Apostle Paul did NOT write Galatians 3:28 to cancel 1 Corinthians 14:34 nor to cancel 1 Timothy 2:12. Do you dare claim that he meant that? Before you answer, please remember that “liars” go to the “Lake of Fire”, right (Revelation 21:8)?
Apostle Paul Wrote Galatians 3:28 in the “afterlife context” of being “sons of God” to “inherit His Kingdom” of which no distinction remains between Male vs Female or Jew vs Gentile etc. among “believers” as the Context of Consecutive Verses in Galatians 3:26 – 27, 29 clearly imply irrefutably in Verses below:
“For you are all sons of God through faith in Christ Jesus. For all of you who were baptized into Christ have clothed yourselves with Christ. There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither slave nor free man, there is neither male nor female; for you are all one in Christ Jesus. And if you belong to Christ, then you are Abraham’s descendants, heirs according to promise.” – apostle Paul (Galatians 3:26 – 29, NASB)
In other words, the Topic being discussed when apostle Paul wrote Galatians 3:28 is certainly NOT church leadership for women NOR Jew-Gentile obedience in regards to the Torah and hence we should NOT quote it to such Topics to which the Bible did NOT refer to when a Verse was Written to be “Truthful with NO Twisting at all”.
Please, let us be “truthful and wise” when quoting “Verses” in “Correct Context” as it is Written toward the Topic in Discussion ‘only’ and NOT quoting it contradictingly AGAINST other Written Verses.
“For the Law was given through Moses; grace and truth were realized through Jesus Christ.” (John 1:17, NASB)
The Doctrine of Christ is to “obey” the Law of Christ (i. e. Any New Testament Commands) as it is Written toward Jew or Gentile, Male vs Female etc.
“Follow my example, as I follow the example of Christ. If anyone wants to be contentious about this, we have no other practice—nor do the churches of God.” – apostle Paul (1 Corinthians 11:1, 16, NIV)
How important is the “Doctrine of Christ”?
“Whosoever transgresseth, and abideth not in the Doctrine of Christ, hath not God. He that abideth in the Doctrine of Christ, he hath both the Father and the Son.” (2 John 1:9, KJV)
In another translation:
“Anyone who goes too far and does not abide in the teaching of Christ, does not have God; the one who abides in the teaching, he has both the Father and the Son.” (2 John 1:9, NASB)
A Great Reward for those who “obey more”:
“Jesus answered and said to him, “If anyone loves Me, he will keep [obey] My word; and My Father will love him, and We will come to him and make Our abode with him.” (John 14:23, NASB)
Let’s avoid “Lawlessness” as much as we can in any aspect especially by doing things AGAINST what is Written in Holy Scripture:
“Many will say to Me on that Day, ‘Lord, Lord, did we not prophesy in Your Name, and in Your Name cast out demons, and in Your Name perform many miracles?’
“And then I will declare to them, ‘I never knew you; DEPART FROM ME, YOU WHO PRACTICE LAWLESSNESS.” – Lord Jesus Christ (Matthew 7:22 – 23, NASB)
The Verse below sounds ‘very serious’. So, please re-consider any form of Lawlessness which we may be believing, practising and teaching AGAINST His Written New Testament Commands:
“The one who says, “I have come to know Him,” and does not keep His commandments, is a liar, and the truth is not in him;” – apostle John (1 John 2:4, NASB)
Well, ‘your choice in life decides your fate’, so please choose “wisely” what you believe even as a Christian. May it be according to “what is Written in Holy Scripture” in New Testament Verses.
Does it mean that we are going to Hell?
God can Save whomever He wants as He chooses to have Mercy despite our errors and false teachings even (you and I do NOT decide that in any way as it is not of us who wills or runs but God Who has MERCY ONLY), Verses:
“For He [God] saith to Moses, I will have mercy on whom I will have mercy, and I will have compassion on whom I will have compassion. So then it is not of him that willeth, nor of him that runneth, but of GOD that sheweth MERCY.” – apostle Paul (Romans 9:15 – 16, NASB)
An Edifying Comment:
Some think that ‘the Law’ spoken of say in 1 Corinthians 9:21 is the ‘Law of Sin and Death’ (Romans 8:2).
Here’s a Proper Explanation regarding this ‘claim’:
For example, the Law in 1 Corinthians 9:21 is the Law of Moses since it’s directly linked to the previous verse below:
“To the Jews I became as a Jew, so that I might win Jews; to those who are under the Law, as under the Law though not being myself under the Law, so that I might win those who are under the Law;” (1 Corinthians 9:20, NASB)
Where though “the Law of Moses is not Written”, the phrase “the Law” in 1 Corinthians 9:20 clearly refers to the “Law of Moses” which was given to the Jews. So, the shorthand for “the Law” refers to the “law of Moses” unless specified otherwise as in the case of the ‘Law of sin and death’.
The Context of Consecutive Verses prove that 1 Corinthians 9:20 and 1 Corinthians 9:21 both refer to “the Law” as the “Law of Moses”.
The Law of sin and death is NOT discussed in 1 Corinthians 9.
Also please consider the Verse below containing the phrase ‘Law of Sin and Death’:
“For the Law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus has set you free from the Law of sin and of death.” (Romans 8:2, NASB)
In this Verse, two Laws are mentioned and contrasted namely, the ‘Law of the Spirit’ vs the ‘Law of sin and death’ where the Torah or the Law of Moses is NOT in discussion here.
Romans 8:2 means that those who are in Christ Jesus experience being ‘led by His Spirit’ and hence by the ‘Law of the Spirit’ experience ‘Spiritual Life’ vs those who are not in Christ Jesus yet (implied) experience the ‘Law of sin and death’ being in ‘sin & dead in their trespasses spiritually’.
Are you reading 1 Corinthians 9:20 and seeing that ‘the Law’ there means ‘Law of Moses’ and in 1 Corinthians 9:21 (Consecutive Verses), the phrase ‘the Law’ ALSO means ‘Law of Moses’?
Law of sin and death —> spiritually dead in sins for not having Christ
Law of Spirit —> spiritual life for having Christ Jesus
Both has nothing to do with the Torah observance. That is according to one is Jew (Acts 21:24) vs Gentile (Acts 21:25) as believers (different observance is allowed or commanded in the quoted New Testament Verses).
Also, please consider the Verse below:
“But now we have been released from the Law, having died to that by which we were bound, so that we serve in newness of the Spirit and not in oldness of the letter.” (Romans 7:6, NASB)
The phrase “oldness of the letter” in Verse above regarding “the Law” referred to here proves that this must be the “Law of Moses”.
Please note carefully that is Written that “But now we have been released from the Law”, i.e. being “released from the Law [of Moses]” and hence the ONLY observance of Law for Gentile believers (to whom the letter is addressed to) is based on the New Testament ‘Law of Christ’ (as 1 Corinthians 9:21) implied which refers to Christ’s Commands toward them through His Apostles (seen from Acts 1:2, 1 Corinthians 14:37, 2 Peter 3:2).
Simple as that ‘as it is Written’.
How could the Gentiles be released from something they were never under in the first place?
Because by default though they did NOT have the Law, all men are bound to it (whether the know the Law or not) as long as ‘they live’:
“Or do you not know, brethren (for I am speaking to those who know the law), that the law has jurisdiction over a person as long as he lives?” (Romans 7:1, NASB)
Only after Christ Came, we could be ‘free’ from the ‘Law of Moses’ (not bound to it) but are ‘now bound to the Law of Christ only’:
“Therefore, my brethren, you also were made to die to the Law through the body of Christ, so that you might be joined to another, to Him who was raised from the dead, in order that we might bear fruit for God.” (Romans 7:4, NASB)
This Fact is Clearly seen in Verses below where Gentiles (though not having the – Law of Moses) will be Judged accordingly as to whether they do rightly according to it or NOT:
“For when Gentiles who do not have the Law do instinctively the things of the Law, these, not having the Law, are a law to themselves, in that they show the work of the Law written in their hearts, their conscience bearing witness and their thoughts alternately accusing or else defending them, on the Day when, according to my gospel, God will judge the secrets of men through Christ Jesus.” (Romans 2:14 – 16, NASB)
Please note that this Judging is NOT based on the ‘Law of Moses as it is’ but based on the ‘Law of Moses according to apostle Paul’s Gospel’ —> meaning according to the ‘Law of Christ’ (i.e. Commands given based on the Law of Moses but according to as it is Written or Revealed in the Gospels).
The phrases “show the work of the Law” —> “accusing or else defending them” —> “according to my gospel” means this irrefutably.