Does it refer to ALL Gentiles or believing Gentiles only?
“For I would not, brethren, that ye should be ignorant of this MYSTERY, lest ye should be wise in your own conceits; that blindness in PART is happened to ISRAEL, until the FULNESS of the GENTILES be come in.
And so ALL ISRAEL shall be SAVED: as it is written, There shall come out of Sion the Deliverer, and shall turn away ungodliness from Jacob:” (Romans 11:25 – 26, KJV)
In Romans 11:25,
The “partial” , not full, refers to not all Israel at that time.
The opposite word “full”, is used for Gentiles, referring to “ALL. Gentiles” being saved first by that time.
Next, only after that, “ALL Israel” are Saved (Romans 11:26) as some have of them have blasphemed the Holy Spirit and thus cannot be saved until the end of the next age (Matthew 8:12, Matthew 12:32).
This SALVATION is referring to the “removal of their sins” (context, Romans 11:27) and it includes these “enemies of the gospel” from among them too (Romans 11:28) —-> This SALVATION is the GIFT and their CALLING as BELOVED despite being ‘enemies of the Gospel’ (Romans 11:27) is WITHOUT REPENTANCE, or Irrevocable as it is declared in Romans 11:29, meaning that it will ‘come to pass eventually beyond their afterlife Judgment too’ (Romans 11: 17 -24) as the context of consecutive verses clearly prove in TIME ORDER too (often MISSED in popular exegesis according to as it is WRITTEN!).
“For this is My Covenant unto them, when I shall take away their sins.
As concerning the gospel, they are enemies for your sakes: but as touching the election, they are beloved for the fathers’ sakes. For the gifts and calling of God are without repentance.” (Romans 11:27 – 28, KJV)
If apostle Paul wanted to refer to The Israelite or Gentile “remnant” in Romans 11:25, he could have just used “you” (for referring to the Gentile remnant, e. g. Romans 11:30 – 31, Romans 11:22) or “the remnant” (according to the election of Grace, Romans 11:5 referring to both believing Israelites and Gentiles together) which he did NOT.
Since he used “fullness” of the Gentiles as opposed to “partial” of Israel in this same verse, it must refer to ALL Gentiles in Romans 11:25 and then only he mentions (time order, implied) that ALL Israel will be SAVED too later (Romans 11:26) as it is WRITTEN.
Please also note that the “same” Greek Word in ‘all sense’ translated as “fullness” in Romans 11:25 is also used in another Factual occurrence in Colossians 2:9 itself speaking in regards to the Divinity of Christ in the phrase “fullness of Deity dwells in Bodily form,”.
Thus if the ‘claim’ of the eternal theologians that this Greek Word translated as “fullness of the Gentiles” (Romans 11:25) means ‘a part of the Gentiles referring to believing Gentiles only’ then likewise the similar phrase for the Factual Statement (Context in usage & grammar linking these two verses) which is “fullness of Deity” (Colossians 2:9) must also mean ‘part of the Deity only dwells in Christ’s Bodily Form’ which is a clear Contradiction and Blasphemy indeed.
The words “partial” and “fullness” itself both occur in Romans 11:25 meaning that the first means ‘not All’ (referring to Israel at that time) and ‘All’ (referring to Gentiles at that future time) who will be SAVED by then ‘having come in’ (into Christ’s Kingdom).
The “partially” hardened Israel mentioned in Romans 11:25 who are still lost in afterlife Judgments (Matthew 8:12, Matthew 12:32) at that time are NOT eternally in Hell either as the next verse (irrefutable consecutive context) echoes this Great Mystery that ALL Israel (where a different word ALL as opposed to the “partial Israel” as mentioned in Romans 11:25 earlier) is mentioned to be SAVED in the END as well in Romans 11:26.
On a related note, in Luke 2:30 – 32, we have “all peoples” (i. e. all people groups, understood to be all races by some scholars) mentioned in both Luke 2:10 and Luke 2:31 in regards to Christ being a SAVIOR for SALVATION for them (Luke 2:11 and Luke 2:30) PROPHETICALLY.
It is a common fallacy for eternal hell theologians to claim that this Salvation in Christ is only for “some chosen ones from all these people groups or races, i. e. some from the all peoples”. Can’t you see that it is “all peoples” or “all people” and NOT ‘some from all peoples’ or ‘some from all people’ or ‘chosen ones or partially from all people(s)’ mentioned in both Luke 2:10 and Luke 2:31?
So, they dare REMOVE the ALL from ALL PEOPLE(S) from His Holy Word as their claim implies which is “sad” and is completely a man-made interpretation AGAINST what is ACTUALLY WRITTEN.
Here is the simple meaning of ALL PEOPLE(S): Well, ALL PEOPLE(S) means ALL PEOPLE groups/races (including both Israelites and Gentiles being “ALL MEN”) —-> yes, ALL PEOPLE(S) refers to ALL HUMAN BEINGS in ALL RACES/GROUP Classifications (e. g. JEW vs GENTILES, no matter what classification you refer to) = ALL MEN.
ALL MEN (including ALL Israel and the FULLNESS of ALL Gentiles too) being SAVED being “in the kingdom of the heavens” eventually by Christ’s SAVING Work which includes both the command keepers & command breakers referring to ALL LAW and PROPHETS (Context, Matthew 5:17 – 18 first) is clearly mentioned by HIMSELF in Matthew 5:19 itself agreeing PERFECTLY to all these as it is WRITTEN (John 12:32 as well).
Do you also realize that by using the word “fullness of the Gentiles” (in Romans 11:25) instead of “all” itself PROVES a Progressive TIMELINE into which ALL GENTILES are SAVED (i.e. NOT all Gentiles are SAVED at the same time, but ‘believers first). Similarly the word ‘partial hardening’ referring to the unsaved Israel at that time (in Romans 11:25) linking it to the ALL ISRAEL being SAVED next as the Mystery in Romans 11:26 also proves that the SALVATION for ALL Israelite is NOT at the same time either, where ‘believers among these are saved first too’ —> agreeing to the ‘each man in his own order’ in 1 Corinthians 15:23 with regards to the ‘Resurrection of the Dead’ (TOPIC – Context, 1 Corinthians 15:21) where ALL who die in ADAM which includes the WICKED too (Acts 24:15) will be MADE ALIVE by CHRIST eventually (1 Corinthians 15:22) —> which will be a TESTIMONY (meaning that it will ‘surely come to pass’) in its “OWN TIMES-Plural” (1 Timothy 2:6, YLT) regarding ALL too in the “dispensation of the FULLNESS of TIMES” (Ephesians 1:10, KJV).
Now, why does Luke 2:10 and Luke 2:31 refer to a Greek phrase which also means ALL PEOPLE(S) in the context of RACES/GROUPS instead of the more general ALL MEN phrase as it occurs in say John 12:32 or 1 Timothy 2:4 or 1 Timothy 4:10?
Simply because SALVATION was thought to be ‘belonging to the JEWS only prior to the Coming of Christ’ (John 4:22) —> and thus at HIS BIRTH both Luke 2:10 and Luke 2:31 REVEALS that His SALVATION as SAVIOUR refers to ALL PEOPLES (including ALL people GROUPS and RACES as well!).
This is evidently clear as the highlight of GENTILES and ISRAEL are both mentioned in the consecutive verse (Luke 2:32) as the ALL PEOPLE referred to in Luke 2:31 proving HE is the SALVATION for ALL MEN in this context too irrevocably, where
GENTILES + ISRAEL (Luke 2:32) = ALL PEOPLE(S) in Luke 2:31 = ALL Humans in these Races/Groups = ALL MEN (Romans 5:18 – 19, 1 Corinthians 15:21 – 22).
Please also note the word “all” which occurs separately from the Greek word translated as “people(s)” in both Luke 2:31 and Luke 2:10 respectively making the above claim true irrefutably.
In other words, in some occurrences in Scripture, the Greek word translated as “people(s)” in Luke 2:31 or Luke 2:10, it occurs by “itself only” or with other limiting words such as “Jewish” or “our” or equivalent being in front of it (e. g. “Jewish people” or “our people”) which may point to a ‘limited usage’ in such cases (context, yes) but NOT so in both Luke 2:31 and Luke 2:10 where the QUANTIFYING Greek Word in front of “the people(s)” is ONLY “ALL” making it to refer to ALL MEN ONLY as claimed and proved in analysis above refuting the popular careless fallacy regarding this.
‘By the way, Satan is not the best theologian simply because he is a deceiver and so he gets all his points wrong. LORD JESUS CHRIST is the BEST THEOLOGIAN (Luke 2:46 – 47, Luke 4:1 – 13, Luke 21:15, Luke 24:45, Colossians 1:18)’ – Anonymous
Let us Truly Rejoice in the Blessed & Majestic Saviour of the World, LORD JESUS CHRIST!
Peace to you!
But isn’t ALL Israel supposed to be SAVED first before ALL Gentiles?
Not all Israel are saved in His Millennial Kingdom.
Example, those who blasphemed the Holy Spirit are not saved till the end of the next age (for their punishment is for Two ages, the current age & the next one, Matthew 12:32).
Also, Matthew 8:11 – 12 mentions clearly that the Israelites (being the “sons of the kingdom” being cast out) as the many of the “Gentiles” are Saved first proving that ‘the order is not an issue’.
Well, apostle Paul is clear that the “Fullness of the Gentiles” (ALL Gentiles are Saved -first in Romans 11:25) by then before ALL Israel is Saved (as only mentioned next in the consecutive verse, Romans 11:26 itself) proving this to be true.
The only problem is we ‘assume’ the order in reverse in popular theology prior using verses which speak of Israel only or those that do NOT compare the order of this occurrence as it is in apostle Paul’s Inspired explanations here in Romans 11.
I will stick to apostle Paul’s order of events in regards to this too as it is Written.
Some related posts regarding the ‘elected or remnant by Grace’:
(a) All will Believe eventually – No Favouritism in the Election of Grace
(b) All Created things – Never Cast out upon Return
(c) Day & Days – In that Day – Days Now & thereafter – All Men Saved
(d) Days – In these “Last Days” – All Raised Up Eventually
(e) All in All – Mystery
(f) FAQ – Is it really All?
(g) FAQ – Common Man-Made Objections against Christ Saving All eventually
Please Remember that LORD JESUS CHRIST SAVES from the “SHADOW of DEATH” regions of HELL itself and will turn it into MORNING as PROPHESIED in Verse below and Two Related Posts as well explaining this Mystery among other related ones too for edification:
“Seek HIM that maketh the seven stars and Orion, and turneth the SHADOW of DEATH into the MORNING, and maketh the day dark with night: that calleth for the waters of the sea, and poureth them out upon the face of the earth: The LORD is His Name:” (Amos 5:8, KJV)
(i) Hell’s Missed Messianic Prophecy – SHADOW of DEATH
(ii) SHADOW of DEATH – Irrefutable Context – Christ Prophesied to SAVE from HELL itself
(iii) Eternal Hell’s End – Who Saves From Eternal Hell itself? – only Lord Jesus Christ CAN
(iv) Rich Man and Lazarus – A Brief Biblical Explanation
(v) Hell – Who has the higher chance of going to Hell? – The Great Warning – The HOPE of the Gospel
(vi) Death – What Happens at Death?
For those interested to find out more, these two links have MORE LINKS to further posts discussing VARIOUS Details with VERSES too, thank you for reading and may it bless your heart too!
(vii) Hell – Can a Christian believe that Hell is not eternal or misinterpret Hell and Death in Isaiah 28 – and go to Hell?
(viii) The Forgotten Champion – KING Jesus Christ
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