Everlasting Father – Isaiah 9 – Does it speak of the Child (Son)?
Yes.
In the first image below, a common false claim of a non-believing Jew (or Israelite or Hebrew) is shown.
They claim that the tenses are different & the object in writing is not the child which is false (they will quote Rabbi’s who think that it refers to Hezekiah or something, not written here at all but they will believe that).
For example, please note that the “to” in front of “and shall be” makes it a valid “active” use but the Jewish translation does not reflect it closely “word to word” though the meaning is similar “regardless”.
The order of translation of the words by the King James is way more accurate & the Jewish translation changes the order of words to shift the focus out of the Son (child) because for example they cannot comprehend, understand or accept that the Son will be called “Eternal Father” or “Mighty God” .
Please find the relevant images and don’t be deceived by the Jewish twisting of it. Should the child be not the object, the “Everlasting Father” phrase should have preceded the “child” and an equivalent phrase to “and called his name” should have followed which is “not” the case in the Original Order of words “as it is written”.
Next, they will attack you asking that “are you an authority in Hebrew” thinking that being an authority in that, they can “change” the order of words to believe their false claim against what is written (the analogy of Translation in English itself suffices to see this).
Regarding the past tense or present tense dilemma, it doesn’t matter since it’s Written from point of occurrence and means the same. Example the same word translated in Numbers 31:43 means “now” in the sense of an ‘event that has occurred’. Or that same word in Judges 14:20 is translated as “become”. In this text, a similar “active” use is found referring to the “shall be” in Isaiah 9:6.
Next, they may ask you what is the meaning of “Everlasting Father” when it is applied to the “Child (Son, Lord Jesus Christ)”?
They would seek an answer from the Tanakh or Torah or Talmud. Sadly, none of these contain the ‘far greater revelation’ of this Fact. The Truth can only be understood with Inspired New Testament Scripture (“as it is written” too) because these things were “not” revealed in ‘times or ages or to generations’ past:
“which in other generations was not made known to the sons of men, as it has now been revealed to His holy apostles and prophets in the Spirit;” (Ephesians 3:5, NASB)
“that is, the mystery which has been hidden from the past ages and generations, but has now been manifested to His saints,” (Colossians 1:26, BLB)
So, why is Lord Jesus Christ called the “Everlasting Father”? Because:
(i) He is Un-created – Exists Eternally (Hence ‘Everlasting’)
He has ‘no beginning and end’ and ‘no father or mother’ (His Pre-Existence and Immortality, Alone —> Christ the ‘Real Melchizedek’ while the ‘human person’ was a ‘comparison of type’ as the ‘inspired’ author of Hebrews explains in Hebrews 7):
“without father, without mother, without genealogy, having neither beginning of days nor end of life, and being made like to the Son of God, doth remain a priest continually.” (Hebrews 7:3, YLT)
He is both “Lord and God” (John 20:28) = “Lord God” or the ‘Almighty (God)’ (Revelation 1:8)
“Thomas answered and said to Him, “My Lord and my God!” (John 20:28, NASB)
“I am the Alpha and the Omega,” says the Lord God, “Who is and Who was and Who is to come, the Almighty.” – Lord Jesus Christ (Revelation 1:8, NASB)
Alpha = Beginning (First)
Omega = End (Last)
(ii) He is the One Who ‘created all things’ (Hence, ‘Father).
“All things came into being through Him (Lord Jesus Christ), and apart from Him nothing came into being that has come into being.” (John 1:3, NASB)
“For by Him all things were created, both in the heavens and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or rulers or authorities– all things have been created through Him and for Him.” (Colossians 1:16, NASB)
Conclusion
The ‘Good News’ (Gospel) is that He Will ‘Reconcile All things’ back to Him because ‘He is their God (Father)’ and ‘their Creator’ though the World doesn’t realize it:
“and by Him to reconcile all things to Himself, having made Peace by the Blood of His Cross through Him, whether the things on the earth or the things in the heavens.” (Colossians 1:20, BLB)
“He (Lord Jesus Christ) was in the world, and the world was made through Him, and the world did not know Him.” (John 1:10, NASB)
P/S: The meaning does NOT change as they ‘wrangle with words’ to ‘twist’ it, ‘especially those of the circumcision’ (Jews or Israelite or Hebrews):
“Remind them of these things, and solemnly charge them in the presence of God not to wrangle about words, which is useless and leads to the ruin of the hearers.” – apostle Paul (2 Timothy 2:14, NASB)
“For there are many rebellious men, empty talkers and deceivers, especially those of the circumcision,” – apostle Paul (Titus 1:10, NASB)
“But they have done this to fulfill the word that is written in their Law, ‘THEY HATED ME WITHOUT A CAUSE (Reason).’ – Lord Jesus Christ (John 15:25, NASB)
By the way, Hebrew is read from the right to the left.
For a more detailed understanding regarding ‘how Lord Jesus Christ is God’, please consider:
https://www.anonymouschristian.org/blog/who-is-jesus-2/
https://www.anonymouschristian.org/blog/lord-jesus-christ-god-as-past-present-future/
